A nurse is planning care for hyperemesis gravidarum. Which interventions are appropriate? (Select all that apply.)
Antiemetics
Fluid restriction
Avoid triggers
IV fluids
Small frequent meals
Correct Answer : A,C,D,E
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a pathological state of intractable vomiting resulting in ketonuria, dehydration, and significant electrolyte depletion. The clinical management aims to restore hemodynamic stability and suppress the overactive emetic reflex. Interventions focus on maintaining metabolic homeostasis and preventing Wernicke’s encephalopathy through thiamine and fluid replacement.
A. Antiemetics: Pharmacological management using pyridoxine, doxylamine, or ondansetron is necessary to interrupt the vomiting cycle. These medications act on the chemoreceptor trigger zone or vestibular system to reduce nausea. Effective suppression of emesis allows for the gradual reintroduction of oral nutrition and hydration.
B. Fluid restriction: Restricting fluids is contraindicated and dangerous for a client already suffering from intravascular dehydration. Adequate hydration is the cornerstone of therapy to prevent renal failure and maintain uteroplacental perfusion. Restricting intake would exacerbate tachycardia and orthostatic hypotension.
C. Avoid triggers: Identifying and eliminating environmental stimuli like strong odors, flickering lights, or specific textures reduces sensory input to the emetic center. Behavioral modification is a non-pharmacological necessity to prevent recurrent episodes of nausea. This helps stabilize the gastric mucosa and CNS.
D. IV fluids: Intravenous rehydration with isotonic crystalloids is the priority intervention for clients unable to tolerate oral intake. This corrects volume deficits and replenishes depleted electrolytes like potassium and chloride. It is essential for reversing metabolic alkalosis caused by loss of gastric acid.
E. Small frequent meals: Once vomiting is controlled, consuming low-fat, high-carbohydrate snacks every 2 to 3 hours prevents an empty stomach. Maintaining stable blood glucose levels minimizes gastric contractions and acid irritation. This dietary strategy supports weight gain and fetal development.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS) is a diagnostic procedure performed between 10 and 13 weeks to detect chromosomal abnormalities. It involves aspirating a small sample of placental tissue either transcervically or transabdominally. While providing early results, it carries a slightly higher risk profile than mid-trimester amniocentesis.
A. Bleeding: The insertion of a catheter or needle into the developing placenta can cause subchorionic or vaginal bleeding. Most post-procedure bleeding is minor, but it must be monitored to ensure it does not lead to pregnancy loss. This risk is inherent to invasive sampling techniques.
B. Infection: Any procedure that bypasses the natural protective barriers of the cervix or skin can introduce bacteria into the uterine cavity. Chorioamnionitis is a rare but serious complication that can jeopardize both the pregnancy and maternal health. Strict aseptic technique is required during the procedure.
C. Fetal anemia: This is not a typical risk associated with CVS, as the sample is taken from the placenta rather than the fetal circulation. Fetal anemia is a more common risk of percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS). CVS focuses on genetic material within the trophoblastic cells.
D. Hypertension: The CVS procedure does not cause systemic maternal hypertension or preeclampsia. While a client may experience transient stress-induced tachycardia, there is no physiological link between placental tissue sampling and the development of gestational hypertension. It does not alter blood pressure.
E. Miscarriage: CVS carries an estimated procedure-related pregnancy loss risk of approximately 0.2% to 1.0%. The mechanical disruption of the gestational environment or subsequent infection can trigger spontaneous abortion. Counseling must include this risk to ensure informed consent by the client.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The management of preeclampsia at a pre-viable or early preterm gestation focuses on expectant management to allow for fetal growth. This involves close monitoring for maternal end-organ damage while maximizing the time the fetus remains in utero. The strategy balances maternal safety against the risks of neonatal prematurity.
A. Stop fetal growth: Preeclampsia often causes placental insufficiency, which may lead to intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). However, the goal of medical care is to optimize perfusion and support growth, not to stop it. Fetal biophysical profiles are used to monitor growth.
B. Prolong pregnancy safely: At 28 weeks, the neonate faces significant morbidity from prematurity. Clinicians attempt to maintain the pregnancy to reach a more mature gestational age while blood pressure is controlled. Stabilization prevents acute maternal complications while the fetus gains weight.
C. Immediate delivery: Delivery is the only definitive cure for preeclampsia, but at 28 weeks, it is reserved only for "severe features" that are life-threatening. If the mother and fetus are stable, immediate delivery is avoided to prevent extreme neonatal complications. Delay allows for steroid administration.
D. Eliminate BP monitoring: Frequent blood pressure assessment is the most critical component of managing preeclampsia. Monitoring detects hypertensive crises and guides the administration of antihypertensive medications like labetalol. Eliminating this would lead to unmonitored vasospasm and stroke risk.
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