A nurse is planning to assist with Leopold maneuvers on a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Ask the client to empty their bladder.
Assist the client into a left-lateral position.
Apply an external fetal monitor to the clients abdomen.
Instruct the client to perform nipple stimulation.
Able to move from back to front.
Correct Answer : A,B,C
Choice A reason: The nurse should plan to ask the client to empty their bladder before performing Leopold maneuvers. The rationale behind this is to ensure that the client's bladder is empty to allow for better palpation of the uterus and fetal position. A full bladder can interfere with accurate assessment and may lead to incorrect findings during the examination.
Choice B reason:
The nurse should assist the client into a left-lateral position. This position is ideal for performing Leopold maneuvers because it helps to displace the uterus away from the vena cava, reducing the risk of supine hypotension syndrome. Moreover, the left-lateral position promotes optimal blood flow to the placenta, which is essential for the well-being of the fetus during the examination.
Choice C reason:
The nurse should apply an external fetal monitor to the client's abdomen after completing the Leopold maneuvers. The purpose of Leopold maneuvers is to determine the fetal position and presentation manually. Once this information is obtained, applying the external fetal monitor allows continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate and uterine contractions to assess the baby's well-being and the progression of labor.
Choice D reason:
The nurse should not instruct the client to perform nipple stimulation when planning to assist with Leopold maneuvers. Nipple stimulation is a method to induce or augment labor, and it is not related to the process of assessing fetal position and presentation using Leopold maneuvers. It may lead to unnecessary contractions and confusion during the examination.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice D reason: The nurse should report the laboratory result of 2+ proteinuria (Choice D) to the healthcare provider. Proteinuria is the presence of excess protein in the urine, which can indicate a potential kidney problem or a complication related to pregnancy, such as preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs like the liver and kidneys. Therefore, this result needs immediate attention to assess the client's condition properly and take appropriate actions to ensure the safety and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
Choice A reason:
The 2-hour postprandial glucose level of 105 mg/dL (Choice A) is within the normal range. During pregnancy, glucose levels are carefully monitored to check for gestational diabetes. In this case, the result falls within the acceptable range, indicating that the client's glucose levels are stable, and gestational diabetes is not a concern at this time.
Choice B reason:
A negative group B streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic result (Choice B) is actually a positive finding. It means that the client does not have an active infection with group B streptococcus, which is essential information for the management of labor and delivery. Therefore, there is no need to report this result to the provider as it indicates a favorable condition.
Choice C reason:
The hemoglobin (Hgb) level of 13 g/dL (Choice C) is within the normal range for a non- pregnant adult female. During pregnancy, blood volume increases, and hemoglobin levels can naturally decrease. However, the provided value is still within the acceptable range, indicating that the client's blood oxygen-carrying capacity is adequate and there is no immediate concern.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Brown in color. The rationale for this choice is that a partial-thickness burn involves damage to the epidermis and the dermis but not the full thickness of the skin. It typically presents with redness, swelling, and blisters. While the burned area may have some discoloration, it is more likely to be red or pink rather than brown. Brown coloration would suggest a deeper burn involving the full thickness of the skin and potentially underlying structures.
Choice B reason:
Leathery appearance. This choice is not expected in a partial-thickness burn. A leathery appearance is characteristic of a full-thickness (third-degree) burn, which involves the destruction of the epidermis, dermis, and potentially deeper tissues. In a partial-thickness burn, the skin may appear red, swollen, and blistered, but it should not have a leathery texture.
Choice C reason:
Visible ligaments. This choice is not indicative of a partial-thickness burn either. Partial- thickness burns primarily affect the epidermis and dermis, but they do not extend deep enough to expose ligaments or other structures below the skin. Visible ligaments would suggest a full-thickness burn or an injury that extends beyond the skin layers.
Choice D reason:
Blister formation. This is the correct choice. Blister formation is a common clinical manifestation of a partial-thickness burn. The injury causes fluid accumulation between the layers of the skin (epidermis and dermis), leading to the formation of blisters. The blisters may be filled with clear fluid and are usually painful and sensitive to touch.
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