A nurse is preparing to administer heparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Inject the medication into the abdomen above the level of the iliac crest.
Massage the injection site after administration of the medication.
Use a 1-inch needle to inject the medication.
Use a 22-gauge needle to inject the medication.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Injecting the medication into the abdomen above the level of the iliac crest is the correct action. This is the preferred site for heparin administration, as it has fewer blood vessels and nerves, and allows for better absorption of the medication. The nurse should avoid the area around the umbilicus, as it may have increased bleeding and bruising.
Choice B reason: Massaging the injection site after administration of the medication is not the correct action. This may cause hematoma formation, tissue irritation, and reduced effectiveness of the medication. The nurse should apply gentle pressure to the injection site for 1 to 2 minutes after administration.
Choice C reason: Using a 1-inch needle to inject the medication is not the correct action. This may cause pain, tissue damage, and bleeding. The nurse should use a 25- to 28-gauge needle that is 3/8 to 5/8 inch long to inject the medication.
Choice D reason: Using a 22-gauge needle to inject the medication is not the correct action. This may cause pain, tissue damage, and bleeding. The nurse should use a 25- to 28-gauge needle that is 3/8 to 5/8 inch long to inject the medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Platelets 190,000/mm3 is within the normal range of 150,000 to 450,000/mm3. This result does not indicate a bleeding risk or a need to adjust the warfarin dose.
Choice B reason: Hct 44% is within the normal range of 37% to 47% for females and 42% to 52% for males. This result does not indicate anemia or polycythemia, which could affect the warfarin therapy.
Choice C reason: PT 45 seconds is above the normal range of 11 to 13.5 seconds. This result indicates that the blood is taking too long to clot, which increases the risk of bleeding. The nurse should notify the provider and expect a decrease in the warfarin dose.
Choice D reason: Hgb 16 g/dL is within the normal range of 12 to 16 g/dL for females and 14 to 18 g/dL for males. This result does not indicate anemia or polycythemia, which could affect the warfarin therapy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because dextrose 5% in 0.45% sodium chloride is a hypotonic solution that can cause hemolysis of the RBCs. It can also cause fluid shifts from the intravascular to the intracellular space, leading to edema and hypotension.
Choice B reason: This is correct because 0.9% sodium chloride is a isotonic solution that is compatible with blood products. It does not cause hemolysis or fluid shifts and maintains the osmotic pressure of the blood.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because lactated Ringer's solution is a isotonic solution that contains electrolytes, such as potassium, calcium, and lactate, that can interfere with the blood products. It can also cause metabolic alkalosis due to the conversion of lactate to bicarbonate.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because dextrose 5% in water is a hypotonic solution that can cause hemolysis of the RBCs. It can also cause fluid shifts from the intravascular to the intracellular space, leading to edema and hypotension.
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