A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has generalized myasthenia gravis. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Encourage the client to eat a large meal in the evening.

Recommend the client eat within 45 min of taking cholinesterase-inhibitor medication.

Recommend the client extend their neck to facilitate swallowing.

Encourage the client to contact an occupational therapist to learn techniques of avoiding aspiration.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Rationale:
A. Encourage the client to eat a large meal in the evening: Clients with myasthenia gravis experience progressive muscle weakness, especially later in the day. Eating large evening meals increases the risk of fatigue and aspiration because muscle strength is reduced after activity.

B. Recommend the client eat within 45 min of taking cholinesterase-inhibitor medication: Cholinesterase inhibitors, such as pyridostigmine, enhance neuromuscular transmission and improve muscle strength. Eating within 45 minutes of taking the medication ensures optimal swallowing ability and reduces the risk of aspiration by aligning mealtime with peak effect.

C. Recommend the client extend their neck to facilitate swallowing: Extending the neck actually increases the risk of aspiration by opening the airway. Clients should be instructed to flex the neck slightly forward while swallowing to close the airway and promote safe swallowing mechanics.

D. Encourage the client to contact an occupational therapist to learn techniques of avoiding aspiration: While an occupational therapist can provide helpful adaptive techniques, primary aspiration prevention teaching should come directly from the nurse and speech-language pathologist.

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Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","F"]

Explanation

Rationale:
A. Fetal activity: Decreased fetal movement is an abnormal finding suggesting possible fetal distress or hypoxia. It indicates reduced oxygen or nutrient delivery to the fetus, often associated with maternal complications such as hypertension or preeclampsia. Immediate evaluation with fetal monitoring or ultrasound is warranted.

B. Urine ketones: The absence of urine ketones is expected and does not indicate a prenatal complication. Ketones would only be concerning if elevated, as they could signal dehydration, starvation, or poorly controlled diabetes, which is not present in this case.

C. Urine protein: The presence of 3+ protein in the urine is a key indicator of preeclampsia. Proteinuria results from endothelial damage in the kidneys caused by hypertension, leading to leakage of protein into the urine and confirming a serious pregnancy complication.

D. Report of headache: A severe, persistent headache unrelieved by acetaminophen suggests cerebral vasospasm related to preeclampsia. It reflects increased blood pressure affecting cerebral circulation and can precede seizures or eclampsia if untreated.

E. Respiratory rate: A respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range for adults and does not indicate a prenatal complication. There is no evidence of respiratory distress or metabolic abnormality in this finding.

F. Blood pressure: A reading of 162/112 mm Hg meets the diagnostic criteria for severe hypertension in pregnancy and strongly indicates preeclampsia. Uncontrolled elevated blood pressure increases the risk of seizures, placental abruption, and fetal growth restriction.

G. Gravida/parity: Being G3 P2 with one preterm birth is useful background information but not, by itself, a sign of a current complication. It helps identify obstetric history and risk factors but does not reflect an immediate prenatal concern in this assessment.

A. Hold the sterile package in his dominant hand and open the top flap of the package toward his body. B. Drop the sterile gauze from 25.4 cm (10 in) above the sterile field. C. Place objects 1.27 cm (0.5 in) inside the border of the sterile field. D. Position the bottle outside the edge of the sterile field when pouring solution into a sterile container.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Rationale:
A. Hold the sterile package in his dominant hand and open the top flap of the package toward his body: The top flap should be opened away from the nurse’s body to avoid reaching over and contaminating the sterile field. Opening toward the body risks touching or dropping contaminants onto the field.

B. Drop the sterile gauze from 25.4 cm (10 in) above the sterile field: Sterile items should be dropped from a minimal height, close to the field, to prevent them from bouncing, falling off, or becoming contaminated. A 10-inch drop increases the risk of contamination.

C. Place objects 1.27 cm (0.5 in) inside the border of the sterile field: The outer 1 inch (2.5 cm) of a sterile field is considered contaminated, not just 0.5 inches. Placing objects inside only 0.5 in does not guarantee sterility and may result in contamination.

D. Position the bottle outside the edge of the sterile field when pouring solution into a sterile container: Keeping the bottle outside the sterile field prevents contamination from the outside of the bottle. Only the sterile contents should enter the sterile container, maintaining the integrity of the sterile field during the dressing change.

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A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has generalized myasthenia gravis. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

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Correct Answer is D

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