A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has osteomyelitis in their left leg. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as requiring a referral?
The client has a WBC count of 20,000/mm3 (5,000 to 10,000/mm3).
The client has type 2 diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6% (4% to 5.9% nondiabetic) (less than 7% good diabetic control).
The client has a prescription for furosemide.
The client has a prescription for long-term IV antibiotic therapy.
The Correct Answer is A
A. A WBC count of 20,000/mm3 indicates a significant infection or inflammation and requires further evaluation and management.
B. An HbA1c of 6% indicates good diabetic control and does not warrant a referral.
C. A prescription for furosemide is not directly related to osteomyelitis and does not necessitate a referral.
D. Long-term IV antibiotic therapy is a standard treatment for osteomyelitis and does not in itself require a referral.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"D"}
Explanation
Bleeding: The client's platelet count has significantly decreased from 154,000/mm³ to 112,000/mm³, which is below the normal range of 150,000 to 400,000/mm³. Platelets are essential for blood clotting, and a low platelet count (thrombocytopenia) increases the risk of bleeding.
Platelet count: This finding directly correlates with the client's risk for bleeding. A low platelet count is a critical indicator that the client's blood clotting ability is compromised, leading to an increased risk of spontaneous bleeding or difficulty controlling bleeding if an injury occurs.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine and does not reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression.
B. Flumazenil reverses benzodiazepine effects, not opioids.
C. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioid-induced respiratory depression.
D. Calcium gluconate is used for hypocalcemia, not opioid overdose.
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