A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has pulmonary tuberculosis and a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following information should the nurse provide?

It is best to take the medication with meals.

Treatment with this medication will last for 1 month.

This medication can cause insomnia.

Urine and other secretions might turn orange.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: This is incorrect. It is not best to take medication with meals. Rifampin is better absorbed when taken on an empty stomach, at least 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal. Taking rifampin with food can reduce its effectiveness and increase the risk of drug resistance. The nurse should advise the client to take the medication as directed by the doctor, and to avoid foods that can interact with rifampin, such as cheese, yogurt, or alcohol.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect. Treatment with this medication will not last for 1 month. Rifampin is usually given as part of a combination therapy for pulmonary tuberculosis, along with other drugs such as isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The standard treatment regimen for drug susceptible tuberculosis consists of an intensive phase of 2 months, followed by a continuation phase of 4 or 7 months, depending on the drug regimen and the patient's response. The nurse should inform the client about the duration and the importance of completing the full course of treatment, even if the symptoms improve or the tests become negative.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect. This medication does not cause insomnia. Rifampin does not affect the sleep cycle or the quality of sleep. However, rifampin can cause other side effects, such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache, or rash. The nurse should instruct the client to report any severe or persistent side effects to the doctor, and to avoid taking over-the-counter drugs or herbal supplements without consulting the doctor, as rifampin can interact with many other medications and reduce their effectiveness.
Choice D reason: This is correct. Urine and other secretions might turn orange. Rifampin can cause a harmless discoloration of body fluids, such as urine, saliva, sweat, tears, or breast milk. The color can range from orange to red or brown, depending on the concentration of the drug and the pH of the fluid. The nurse should reassure the client that this is a normal and expected effect of rifampin, and that it does not indicate any damage to the kidneys or other organs. The nurse should also warn the client that rifampin can stain contact lenses, dentures, or clothing, and advise the client to use disposable lenses, remove dentures before taking the drug, and wear dark colored clothes.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: "Use simple, childlike statements when speaking." This response is not appropriate because it can be demeaning and disrespectful to the client. The client is an adult who knows what they want to say, but they have difficulty saying it. Using simple statements is helpful, but they should not be childlike or patronizing.

Choice B reason: "Use a higher pitched tone of voice when speaking." This response is not appropriate because it can be irritating and confusing to the client. The client may have normal hearing, or they may have hearing loss due to age or stroke. Using a higher pitched tone of voice can make the speech harder to understand and may imply that the client is not intelligent.

Choice C reason: "Incorporate nonverbal cues in the conversation." This response is appropriate because nonverbal cues, such as gestures, facial expressions, and drawings, can help the client understand and express themselves better. Nonverbal cues can also reduce frustration and anxiety for both the client and the family member.

Choice D reason: "Ask multiple choice questions as part of the conversation." This response is not appropriate because it can be overwhelming and stressful for the client. Multiple choice questions can be hard to process and remember for someone with aphasia. It is better to ask yes or no questions, or to provide options with visual cues.

A. History of neurologic deficits lasting less than 1 hr B. Manifestations preceded by a severe headache C. Gradual onset of several hours D. Maintains consciousness

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: A history of neurologic deficits lasting less than 1 hr is not a typical manifestation of a hemorrhagic stroke. This could be a sign of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain that causes stroke like symptoms. A TIA is different from a hemorrhagic stroke, which is caused by bleeding in the brain due to a ruptured blood vessel.

Choice B reason: Manifestations preceded by a severe headache is a common manifestation of a hemorrhagic stroke. A ruptured cerebral aneurysm can cause sudden and intense pain in the head, often described as the worst headache of one's life. This is due to the increased pressure and irritation of the brain tissue and nerves by the blood leaking from the aneurysm.

Choice C reason: A gradual onset of several hours is not a usual manifestation of a hemorrhagic stroke. A hemorrhagic stroke is a medical emergency that requires immediate treatment, as the bleeding can cause rapid damage to the brain and increase the risk of death or disability. The symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke usually develop suddenly and worsen quickly.

Choice D reason: Maintaining consciousness is not a likely manifestation of a hemorrhagic stroke. A hemorrhagic stroke can cause loss of consciousness, confusion, drowsiness, or coma due to the reduced blood flow and oxygen to the brain. The level of consciousness can also be affected by the location and extent of the bleeding, as well as the presence of complications such as hydrocephalus or vasospasm.

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A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has pulmonary tuberculosis and a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following information should the nurse provide?

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