A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients.
Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea
client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8%.
A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities
A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
This client has a high risk of developing a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention.
Tachypnea is a sign of respiratory distress and hypoxia, which can indicate a pulmonary embolism.
The nurse should assess this client first and notify the provider.
Choice B is wrong because a client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8% is wellcontrolled and does not need urgent attention.
The normal range for HbA1c is 4% to 6%, and the goal for diabetic clients is less than 7%.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities is expected to have some degree of motor impairment due to the medication.
The nurse should monitor the client’s sensation, movement, and pain level, but this is not a priority over choice A. Choice D is wrong because a client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring is not in immediate danger.
Sinus arrhythmia is a normal variation of heart rhythm that occurs with breathing.
The nurse should observe the client’s vital signs and cardiac rhythm, but this is not a priority over choice A.
The correct answer is choice A. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
This client has a high risk of developing a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention.
Tachypnea is a sign of respiratory distress and hypoxia, which can indicate a pulmonary embolism.
The nurse should assess this client first and notify the provider.
Choice B is wrong because a client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8% is wellcontrolled and does not need urgent attention.
The normal range for HbA1c is 4% to 6%, and the goal for diabetic clients is less than 7%.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities is expected to have some degree of motor impairment due to the medication.
The nurse should monitor the client’s sensation, movement, and pain level, but this is not a priority over choice A. Choice D is wrong because a client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring is not in immediate danger.
Sinus arrhythmia is a normal variation of heart rhythm that occurs with breathing.
The nurse should observe the client’s vital signs and cardiac rhythm, but this is not a priority over choice A.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D, spotting.
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta implants in the lower part of the uterus, partly or completely covering the cervical opening.
This can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, usually in the third trimester.
Spotting is a sign of placenta previa and should be reported to the provider immediately.
Choice A is wrong because nausea is not a specific finding of placenta previa.
Nausea can occur in normal pregnancy or in other conditions such as hyperemesis gravidarum or preeclampsia.
Choice B is wrong because polyhydramnios is not a finding of placenta previa.
Polyhydramnios is a condition where there is too much amniotic fluid in the uterus, which can cause complications such as preterm labor, cord prolapse, or fetal malformations.
Choice C is wrong because uterine tenderness is not a finding of placenta previa.
Uterine tenderness is a sign of abruptio placentae, which is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery.
This can cause severe abdominal pain, dark red vaginal bleeding, and fetal distress.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A, hematuria.
Hematuria is the presence of red blood cells in the urine, which can make it appear pink or cola-colored. Hematuria is a common sign of glomerulonephritis, which is inflammation of the tiny filters in the kidneys (glomeruli) that remove waste and excess fluid from the blood.
Hematuria occurs because the inflamed glomeruli allow some blood cells to leak into the urine.
Choice B, polyuria, is wrong because polyuria is the production of abnormally large amounts of urine. Polyuria is not a typical feature of acute glomerulonephritis, which may actually cause reduced urine output due to fluid retention and decreased kidney function.
Choice C, weight loss, is wrong because weight loss is not a common symptom of acute glomerulonephritis. On the contrary, weight gain may occur due to fluid retention and edema (swelling) in the face, hands, feet and abdomen.
Choice D, hypotension, is wrong because hypotension is low blood pressure. Hypotension is not usually associated with acute glomerulonephritis, which may cause high blood pressure (hypertension) due to fluid overload and impaired sodium excretion by the kidneys.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are less than 120/80 mmHg for adults.
Normal ranges for urine output are about 800 to 2000 mL per day for adults.
Normal ranges for protein in the urine are less than 150 mg per day for adults. Normal ranges for red blood cells in the urine are less than 3 per high-power field for men and less than 5 per high-power field for women.
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