A nurse is caring for a client who received 50,000 units of IV heparin rather than the prescribed 5,000 units. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Complete an incident report.
Check the client for indications of bleeding.
Monitor the client's aPTT levels
Notify the risk manager.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Completing an incident report is not the correct action. An incident report should be completed as part of the hospital's protocol to document the medication error and ensure appropriate follow-up and investigation.
Choice B reason:
Checking the client for indications of bleeding is the correct action to be taken. In this situation, the nurse's first priority should be to assess the client for indications of bleeding, as the client received a significantly higher dose of IV heparin than prescribed. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots, and an overdose can increase the risk of bleeding.
After administering the wrong dose of medication, the nurse's immediate concern is the client's safety and well-being. Checking for signs of bleeding, such as petechiae, ecchymosis, hematomas, bleeding gums, melena (black, tarry stools), haematuria (blood in urine), or any other unusual bleeding, is crucial.
Choice C reason:
Monitor the client's aPTT levels: This is not the correct action to be taken. Monitoring the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) levels is essential to assess the client's coagulation status and determine if the overdose of heparin has affected their clotting ability. The healthcare provider may adjust the heparin dosage based on the aPTT levels.
Choice D reason:
Notify the risk manager: This is not the correct action to be taken. The risk manager or appropriate supervisor should be informed about the medication error as soon as possible to initiate a thorough review of the incident and take necessary steps to prevent similar errors in the future.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because after puncturing the skin and the vein, the nurse needs to advance the catheter into the vein with the finger hub to ensure proper placement and prevent complications such as infiltration or phlebitis.
Choice A is wrong because flushing the catheter with saline should be done after securing the catheter to the skin with a transparent dressing and attaching a primed piece of extension tubing to the catheter.
Choice B is wrong because retracting the stylet should be done after advancing the catheter into the vein and releasing the tourniquet from the client’s arm.
Choice C is wrong because releasing the tourniquet should be done after advancing the catheter into the vein and before retracting the stylet.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr.
This is because the child is at risk for developing peritonitis, which can cause severe abdominal pain.
Scheduled analgesics can provide better pain relief than PRN analgesics.
Choice A is wrong because the child should not be given anything by mouth until bowel sounds return, which can take up to 24 hr after surgery.
Giving clear liquids too soon can cause nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distension.
Choice B is wrong because cromolyn nebulized solution is used to prevent asthma attacks, not to treat appendicitis.
There is no indication that the child has asthma or needs this medication.
Choice C is wrong because applying a warm compress to the operative site can increase inflammation and infection risk.
A cold compress can be used to reduce swelling and pain, but only if prescribed by the provider.
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