A nurse is caring for a client who received 50,000 units of IV heparin rather than the prescribed 5,000 units. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Complete an incident report.

Check the client for indications of bleeding.

Monitor the client's aPTT levels

Notify the risk manager.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason:

Completing an incident report is not the correct action. An incident report should be completed as part of the hospital's protocol to document the medication error and ensure appropriate follow-up and investigation.

Choice B reason:

Checking the client for indications of bleeding is the correct action to be taken. In this situation, the nurse's first priority should be to assess the client for indications of bleeding, as the client received a significantly higher dose of IV heparin than prescribed. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots, and an overdose can increase the risk of bleeding.

After administering the wrong dose of medication, the nurse's immediate concern is the client's safety and well-being. Checking for signs of bleeding, such as petechiae, ecchymosis, hematomas, bleeding gums, melena (black, tarry stools), haematuria (blood in urine), or any other unusual bleeding, is crucial.

Choice C reason:

Monitor the client's aPTT levels: This is not the correct action to be taken. Monitoring the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) levels is essential to assess the client's coagulation status and determine if the overdose of heparin has affected their clotting ability. The healthcare provider may adjust the heparin dosage based on the aPTT levels.

Choice D reason:

Notify the risk manager: This is not the correct action to be taken. The risk manager or appropriate supervisor should be informed about the medication error as soon as possible to initiate a thorough review of the incident and take necessary steps to prevent similar errors in the future.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is choice a. Maternal hypoglycemia.

Choice A rationale:

Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, causing a sustained low fetal heart rate. Hypoglycemia in the mother can affect the fetus by reducing the availability of glucose, which is essential for fetal metabolism and heart function.

Choice B rationale:

Maternal fever is more commonly associated with fetal tachycardia rather than bradycardia. Fever in the mother can lead to an increased fetal heart rate, not a decreased one.

Choice C rationale:

Chorioamnionitis is an infection of the fetal membranes and amniotic fluid, which can lead to fetal distress and tachycardia rather than bradycardia.

Choice D rationale:

Fetal anemia can also cause bradycardia, but in this scenario, maternal hypoglycemia is a more immediate concern as it directly affects the fetal heart rate by impacting the fetal metabolic processes.

A. Atrial fibrillation. B. Complete heart block C. First-degree atrioventricular block D. Premature atrial complexes

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

. Answer and explanation.

The correct answer is choice C, first-degree atrioventricular block.

This is because the PR interval is longer than normal, which indicates a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles through the AV node. A normal PR interval is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds, or 3 to 5 small squares on the EKG strip.

In this case, the PR interval is 0.35 seconds, which is more than 5 small squares.

Choice A is wrong because atrial fibrillation is a type of arrhythmia where the atria beat irregularly and rapidly, producing chaotic and variable P waves and an irregular ventricular response.

There is no constant PR interval in atrial fibrillation.

Choice B is wrong because complete heart block is a type of arrhythmia where there is no conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in independent and dissociated atrial and ventricular rhythms.

There are no consistent P waves or PR intervals in complete heart block.

Choice D is wrong because premature atrial complexes are extra beats that originate from the atria and interrupt the normal sinus rhythm.

They produce abnormal P waves that are different from the sinus P waves, and may have a shorter or longer PR interval depending on the timing of the impulse.

However, they do not cause a constant prolongation of the PR interval.

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A nurse is caring for a client who received 50,000 units of IV heparin rather than the prescribed 5,000 units. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Nursing Test Bank

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