A nurse is reinforcing dietary teaching with a client who has a vitamin B12 deficiency about selecting foods for breakfast. Which option indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Whole-grain toast with peanut butter and orange juice
Oatmeal with almond milk and sliced banana
Soy yogurt with granola and berries
Scrambled eggs, low-fat milk, and fortified cereal
The Correct Answer is D
A. This breakfast choice is high in fiber and healthy fats but lacks significant sources of vitamin B12. Vitamin B12 is found almost exclusively in animal products or specially fortified foods; peanuts, whole grains, and oranges do not naturally contain the vitamin. This selection would not help a patient increase their B12 intake to correct a nutritional deficiency.
B. Oatmeal, almond milk, and bananas are plant-based foods that do not provide vitamin B12 unless they have been heavily fortified by the manufacturer. While healthy, this meal is largely inadequate for a patient needing to resolve a B12 deficit. Patients relying on plant-based diets must be specifically taught to look for labels indicating added cobalamin to meet their needs.
C. Soy yogurt and granola are typically plant-derived and are not natural sources of vitamin B12. While some soy products are fortified, they are less reliable than the animal-based proteins often recommended for correcting a clinical deficiency. This choice does not consistently guarantee the high levels of cobalamin required for a patient undergoing dietary management of B12 deficiency.
D. Eggs and dairy products like low-fat milk are excellent natural sources of vitamin B12 because the vitamin is synthesized by microorganisms in animals. Fortified cereals are also specifically engineered to provide high percentages of the daily required intake of B12. This combination provides multiple pathways for the patient to increase their serum cobalamin levels through bioavailable animal proteins and enriched grains.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A.A high pH (greater than 7.45) indicates a state of alkalosis, which is the opposite of the acidic state expected in a client with COPD. In chronic respiratory acidosis, the pH is typically on the lower end of the normal range (7.35 to 7.40) because the body has had time to compensate. A truly "high" pH would suggest a primary metabolic or respiratory alkalosis rather than the chronic retention of carbon dioxide.
B.A low PaCO2 (less than 35 mmHg) is indicative of hyperventilation or respiratory alkalosis, where the lungs are blowing off too much carbon dioxide. Clients with COPD are "CO2 retainers" due to alveolar hypoventilation and air trapping, meaning their PaCO2 is chronically elevated (hypercapnia). A low PaCO2 would be an atypical and unexpected finding in a patient suffering from chronic obstructive lung disease and respiratory acidosis.
C.A high PaO2 is rarely seen in clients with COPD, who typically experience chronic hypoxemia due to impaired gas exchange and ventilation-perfusion mismatch. These patients often have a "normal" PaO2 that is lower than that of the general population, frequently ranging from 60 to 80 mmHg. A high oxygen level would be more suggestive of excessive supplemental oxygen administration rather than a natural manifestation of the disease process.
D.In chronic respiratory acidosis, the kidneys compensate for the high PaCO2 by retaining bicarbonate (HCO3) to help buffer the acidic pH. This metabolic compensation is a slow process that occurs over days, resulting in an HCO3 level that is elevated above the normal reference range (greater than 26 mEq/L). The presence of a high HCO3 alongside a near-normal pH and high PaCO2 confirms that the respiratory acidosis is in a compensated, chronic state.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A.Hives, or urticaria, are a hallmark clinical finding of a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction, often seen during allergic transfusion reactions. This occurs when the recipient's antibodies react against donor plasma proteins, triggering the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils. The resulting localized or systemic skin eruptions are frequently accompanied by pruritus and are the most common objective signs of a mild allergic response.
B.Shallow respirations are not a specific or expected finding for a typical allergic reaction, which is more likely to cause dyspnea or wheezing if it progresses to anaphylaxis. Shallow breathing is often associated with pain, sedation, or metabolic disturbances rather than the acute bronchoconstriction seen in immune-mediated events. In the context of an allergic reaction, the nurse would monitor for respiratory distress rather than a simple decrease in breathing depth.
C.Adventitious bowel sounds are not an expected or characteristic sign of an acute allergic or transfusion reaction. While systemic anaphylaxis can occasionally cause gastrointestinal cramping or diarrhea due to smooth muscle contraction, it does not typically manifest as abnormal sounds upon auscultation of the abdomen. The primary focus of assessment during a reaction remains on the integumentary, respiratory, and cardiovascular systems where symptoms are most prevalent.
D."Other findings noted" is a vague and non-specific descriptor that does not provide actionable clinical information for the nurse. In a clinical examination, specific objective data like tachycardia, hypotension, or angioedema must be identified to guide the appropriate medical intervention. A correct assessment requires the identification of specific, recognizable signs of physiological distress rather than a generalized statement about miscellaneous findings.
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