A nurse is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who is taking erythropoietin. Which of the following results indicates the medication is effective?
Decreased white blood cells
Increased calcium
Increased hemoglobin
Decreased BUN
The Correct Answer is C
A. Decreased white blood cells: Erythropoietin specifically stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. White blood cell counts are not directly affected by this medication, so a decrease would not indicate effectiveness.
B. Increased calcium: Calcium levels are unrelated to erythropoietin therapy. Changes in calcium do not reflect the medication’s ability to stimulate erythropoiesis.
C. Increased hemoglobin: Erythropoietin promotes red blood cell production, which increases hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. An elevation in hemoglobin indicates the medication is effectively stimulating erythropoiesis.
D. Decreased BUN: Blood urea nitrogen reflects kidney function and protein metabolism. While erythropoietin is often used in clients with chronic kidney disease, a decrease in BUN is not a direct measure of the drug’s effectiveness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Vancomycin: Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic and does not share cross-reactivity with penicillin. It can be safely administered to clients with a penicillin allergy.
B. Clarithromycin: Clarithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic. It has a different chemical structure from penicillin and is not contraindicated in clients with penicillin allergies.
C. Metronidazole: Metronidazole is an antibiotic used primarily for anaerobic bacterial and protozoal infections. It is unrelated to penicillin and can be given safely to clients with penicillin hypersensitivity.
D. Ceftriaxone: Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin, which is chemically related to penicillin. Clients with a history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin have an increased risk of severe allergic reactions to cephalosporins, making ceftriaxone contraindicated in this case.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Kidney transplant: Phenytoin is not used to prevent organ rejection or manage transplant-related complications. Immunosuppressive therapy is indicated in kidney transplants, and phenytoin does not play a role in this context.
B. Endocarditis: Endocarditis is treated with antibiotics and sometimes surgical interventions, not antiepileptic drugs. Phenytoin does not address the bacterial infection or associated inflammation in the heart.
C. Hypokalemia: Low potassium levels are managed with potassium supplements or dietary adjustments. Phenytoin does not correct electrolyte imbalances and is not indicated for hypokalemia.
D. Seizures: Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication used to prevent and control seizures. It stabilizes neuronal membranes and reduces the spread of seizure activity, making it appropriate for clients experiencing convulsive episodes.
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