A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is scheduled for a cesarean delivery.
Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
Hemoglobin of 11 g/dL
Platelets of 80,000/mm3
White blood cells of 12,000/mm3
Blood type A positive.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. The client can use patient-controlled analgesia to self-administer opioids. This is a form of multimodal analgesia, which is the core principle for cesarean delivery pain management.
Patient-controlled analgesia allows the client to have control over their pain relief and adjust the dose according to their needs.
Choice A is wrong because the client may experience delays in receiving analgesics if they have to request them from the nurse, which can lead to inadequate pain relief and increased opioid consumption.
Choice C is wrong because ice packs are not recommended for cesarean delivery pain management, as they may interfere with wound healing and increase the risk of infection.
Choice D is wrong because deep breathing and relaxation exercises are not sufficient to manage acute postoperative pain, although they may be helpful as adjuncts to pharmacologic methods.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C) Encouraging coughing and deep breathing exercises.
This is because coughing and deep breathing exercises can help prevent atelectasis and pneumonia, which are common postoperative complications of C-section.
Coughing and deep breathing exercises also promote oxygenation and circulation.
Choice A) Administering an opioid analgesic is wrong because opioids can cause respiratory depression and sedation, which are not desirable before surgery.
Opioids can also cross the placenta and affect the fetus.
Choice B) Assessing for signs of deep vein thrombosis is wrong because this is not a priority intervention before surgery.
Deep vein thrombosis is more likely to occur after surgery due to immobility and venous stasis.
Choice D) Providing a high-carbohydrate meal is wrong because this can increase the risk of aspiration during surgery.
The client should be kept NPO (nothing by mouth) for at least 6 hours before surgery.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choiceD.A planned Cesarean section increases the rate of unexplained stillbirths at or after 34 weeks in future pregnancies.This is because a prior Cesarean section can cause placental abnormalities such as placenta previa and placenta accreta, which are associated with increased risk of stillbirth.
Choice A is wrong because the evidence comparing the risks of planned Cesarean section and vaginal delivery is mainly low or moderate quality.There are many confounding factors that can affect the outcomes of different modes of delivery, and most studies are observational and not randomized.
Choice B is wrong because the immediate maternal risks from a planned Cesarean section are not significantly higher than those of a planned vaginal delivery.However, a planned Cesarean section is associated with higher risks of infection, thromboembolism, wound complications, and longer hospital stay than a planned vaginal delivery.
Choice C is wrong because a vaginal birth is not associated with a comparable or higher maternal mortality rate than planned Cesarean section.The maternal mortality rate for planned Cesarean section is 0.01% and for planned vaginal delivery is 0.02%, which means there is no significant difference between the two modes of delivery.
Choice E is wrong because there is no evidence that an association exists between a prior Cesarean section and subsequent preterm birth, fetal growth restriction and spontaneous miscarriage.
These outcomes are more likely to be influenced by other factors such as maternal age, medical conditions,
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