A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a positive pregnancy test.
Which of the following should the nurse identify as a finding that places the client at increased risk for a molar pregnancy?
The client is 20 years of age.
This is the client's first pregnancy.
The client previously had an induced abortion.
The client has a history of infertility.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Maternal age at the extremes of the reproductive spectrum is a known risk factor for hydatidiform mole. Specifically, women younger than 15 years or older than 35 to 40 years are at the highest risk. A 20-year-old client falls within the typical low-risk age range for this gestational trophoblastic disease. The biological mechanism involves higher rates of abnormal fertilization or gamete quality at very young or advanced maternal ages, which is not applicable here.
Choice B rationale
Parity does not serve as a primary independent risk factor for the development of a molar pregnancy. Both primigravida and multigravida clients can develop this condition, which results from an abnormal fertilization event where the paternal genetic material duplicates or two sperm fertilize an empty egg. While previous obstetric history is important, the status of being in a first pregnancy does not specifically increase the baseline physiological risk for trophoblastic proliferation compared to subsequent pregnancies.
Choice C rationale
While a history of miscarriage or spontaneous pregnancy loss may slightly correlate with future molar pregnancies in some studies, a history of a single induced abortion is not considered a primary or significant risk factor for hydatidiform mole. Molar pregnancies are chromosomal accidents occurring at the time of conception. Previous elective terminations do not typically alter the genetic or hormonal environment of the uterus in a way that predisposes the client to molar gestations in future pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
A history of infertility is clinically associated with an increased risk of molar pregnancy. This correlation may be linked to underlying ovulatory dysfunction or the use of ovulation-inducing medications, which can occasionally result in abnormal fertilization events. Additionally, clients struggling with infertility may have chromosomal irregularities in their oocytes. Since a molar pregnancy is characterized by the overgrowth of trophoblastic tissue due to genetic errors during fertilization, any history of reproductive challenges is a relevant risk factor.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
This choice is incorrect because maternal renal dysfunction is a secondary systemic complication of preeclampsia rather than the primary driver of low amniotic fluid. While the mother may experience decreased glomerular filtration and proteinuria due to vasospasm, the amniotic fluid volume in the third trimester is predominantly determined by fetal urine production. Maternal kidney damage does not directly translate to reduced fetal urine unless the entire uteroplacental perfusion system is severely compromised first.
Choice B rationale
Increased systemic vascular resistance is a hallmark of the maternal pathology in preeclampsia, characterized by widespread endothelial dysfunction and vasospasm. While this elevated resistance leads to maternal hypertension and organ damage, it is a physiological state of the mother. It serves as the underlying mechanism for many symptoms but is not the specific anatomical or physiological event that directly results in the reduction of amniotic fluid volume within the gestational sac.
Choice C rationale
The release of inflammatory factors, such as cytokines and anti-angiogenic proteins like sFlt-1, plays a significant role in the pathogenesis of preeclampsia by causing endothelial cell injury. These factors circulate in the maternal bloodstream and contribute to the multi-system nature of the disease. However, they are biochemical triggers of the condition rather than the mechanical or physiological cause of oligohydramnios, which is specifically linked to the fetal response to a hypoxic environment.
Choice D rationale
Chronic uteroplacental ischemia is the primary cause of oligohydramnios in preeclampsia. Reduced blood flow through the spiral arteries leads to a hypoxic environment for the fetus. In response, the fetus redistributes its cardiac output to vital organs like the brain and heart, a process known as brain sparing. This results in decreased blood flow to the fetal kidneys, leading to reduced fetal urine production. Since fetal urine is the main component of amniotic fluid, oligohydramnios occurs.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Weight loss is a primary clinical indicator of hyperemesis gravidarum, typically defined as a loss of more than 5.
Choice B rationale
Abdominal cramping is not a typical manifestation of hyperemesis gravidarum and usually suggests other obstetric complications like spontaneous abortion, ectopic pregnancy, or gastrointestinal distress. Hyperemesis is characterized by upper gastrointestinal symptoms related to intractable nausea and vomiting. While the act of vomiting can strain abdominal muscles, rhythmic or sharp cramping is a localized uterine or bowel symptom that warrants a separate differential diagnosis to ensure the pregnancy remains viable and the uterus is stable.
Choice C rationale
Severe, protracted vomiting is the defining characteristic of hyperemesis gravidarum, likely linked to rapidly rising levels of human chorionic gonadotropin and estrogen. This goes beyond typical morning sickness, as the vomiting is frequent and prevents the retention of liquids or solids. This persistent gastric emptying leads to dehydration and the presence of ketones in the urine, as the body turns to lipid metabolism in the absence of glucose, which further irritates the chemical triggers for nausea.
Choice D rationale
Electrolyte imbalances occur as a direct result of losing gastric hydrochloric acid, potassium, and sodium during repeated bouts of emesis. The client may develop hypokalemia, where potassium is < 3.5 mEq/L, and metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of hydrogen ions. These imbalances interfere with normal cellular function, cardiac conduction, and nerve transmission. Maintaining homeostasis becomes difficult without intravenous fluid and electrolyte replacement to restore the normal plasma concentrations required for maternal and fetal health during gestation.
Choice E rationale
Vaginal blood spotting is not associated with hyperemesis gravidarum and is instead a warning sign of potential miscarriage, cervical irritation, or implantation issues. Hyperemesis is strictly a metabolic and gastrointestinal disorder. The presence of blood in the vaginal canal requires a pelvic exam or ultrasound to assess the cervix and placenta. Including this as an expected finding for hyperemesis would be a clinical error, as it indicates a completely different physiological process involving the reproductive tract.
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