A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
"The TPN will stimulate your appetite so that you'll be able to eat more food."
"The TPN contains medication that will help your digestive tract absorb nutrients."
"The TPN will provide nutrients while your bowels have time to rest."
"The TPN will help keep your bowels clear in case you need surgery."
The Correct Answer is C
C) "The TPN will provide nutrients while your bowels have time to rest": Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is a method of providing nutrition intravenously to clients who are unable to tolerate or absorb adequate nutrients through the gastrointestinal tract. It bypasses the digestive tract entirely, delivering a balanced mixture of nutrients directly into the bloodstream. One of the primary indications for TPN is to provide nutritional support while allowing the gastrointestinal tract to rest, particularly in cases where the bowels are inflamed, injured, or unable to function properly. By bypassing the digestive system, TPN can provide essential nutrients to the body while reducing the workload on the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, the nurse should include this information in the teaching to help the client understand the purpose and benefits of TPN therapy.
A) "The TPN will stimulate your appetite so that you'll be able to eat more food": TPN does not stimulate appetite. In fact, TPN is often used when the client cannot eat or tolerate oral intake due to various medical conditions or gastrointestinal issues. Therefore, this statement is incorrect and may confuse the client about the purpose of TPN therapy.
B) "The TPN contains medication that will help your digestive tract absorb nutrients": TPN does not contain medication to help the digestive tract absorb nutrients. Instead, TPN provides nutrients directly into the bloodstream, bypassing the need for digestion. This statement is inaccurate and does not accurately describe the mechanism of action of TPN.
D) "The TPN will help keep your bowels clear in case you need surgery": While TPN can help maintain nutritional status in clients who are unable to eat or tolerate oral intake, it is not primarily used to keep the bowels clear for surgery. Bowel preparation for surgery typically involves other interventions such as bowel rest, mechanical cleansing, or medication administration. Therefore, this statement is not directly related to the purpose of TPN therapy and may mislead the client about its intended use.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B) Melena: Melena refers to black, tarry stools and is indicative of upper gastrointestinal bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, thereby prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. While anticoagulation is intended to prevent thrombosis, it also increases the risk of bleeding, including gastrointestinal bleeding. Melena is a concerning sign of significant bleeding and requires prompt medical attention. The nurse should prioritize reporting melena to the provider to facilitate further evaluation and management, which may include adjusting the warfarin dosage or investigating the underlying cause of the bleeding.
A) Hair loss: Hair loss, or alopecia, is a known side effect of warfarin but is generally not considered a priority finding compared to signs of active bleeding. While hair loss can be distressing for clients, it is typically not life-threatening and may resolve spontaneously or with discontinuation of the medication.
C) Abdominal cramping: Abdominal cramping can occur for various reasons, including gastrointestinal upset or other gastrointestinal issues, but it is not typically associated with warfarin use. While the nurse should assess and address the client's abdominal cramping, it is not as urgent as reporting signs of active bleeding such as melena.
D) Fever: Fever may indicate the presence of an infection or inflammatory process but is not directly related to warfarin therapy. However, if the fever is accompanied by signs of bleeding or other concerning symptoms, it should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Nonetheless, in the absence of other significant symptoms, fever alone may not be as urgent as reporting melena, which suggests active bleeding.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) The client has an increased creatinine level: While an increased creatinine level may indicate renal impairment, it is not specific to a vancomycin infusion reaction. Elevated creatinine levels may occur due to various factors, including underlying kidney disease or dehydration.
B) The client is experiencing hypotension: This is the correct answer. Hypotension, or low blood pressure, can be a manifestation of a vancomycin infusion reaction. Vancomycin infusion reactions may include anaphylaxis or anaphylactoid reactions, which can lead to systemic vasodilation and subsequent hypotension.
C) The client's IV site is red and edematous: Redness ’nd edema at the IV site may indicate phlebitis or infiltration, which are local complications rather than systemic reactions to vancomycin infusion.
D) The client reports ringing in their ears: Ringing in the ears, also known as tinnitus, is a potential side effect of vancomycin, particularly with high doses or prolonged use. However, it is not specific to a vancomycin infusion reaction and may occur independently of the infusion process.
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