A nurse is reviewing the transfer report on a client.
A nurse is preparing to receive a client from a residential care facility who is scheduled to arrive on the medical-surgical unit. The nurse has received the following transfer report by telephone from the nurse at the residential care facility.
Click to highlight the statements in the transfer report that require action by the nurse prior to the client's arrival.
70-year old male with reports of mid-abdominal pain for 4 days, rating pain 7 on a 0 to 10 pain scale. Has had decreased appetite for a week. Upper abdomen distention present with decreased bowel sounds in lower abdomen. Client reports nausea and started vomiting orange-brown emesis yesterday afternoon that has foul odor. Last bowel movement 7 days ago. Lungs clear to auscultation. Heart sounds moderate and regular. Vitals: Temperature 37.8° C (100° F), BP 120/80 mm Hg, pulse rate 100/min, respirations 20/min and regular.
of mid-abdominal pain for 4 days, rating pain 7 on a 0 to 10 pain scale.
Upper abdomen distention present with decreased bowel sounds in lower abdomen.
Client reports nausea and started vomiting orange-brown emesis yesterday afternoon that has foul odor.
Last bowel movement 7 days ago
Lungs clear to auscultation. Heart sounds moderate and regular
Vitals: Temperature 37.8° C (100° F), BP 120/80 mm Hg, pulse rate 100/min, respirations 20/min and regular
The Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]
- Mid-abdominal pain for 4 days, rating pain 7 on a 0 to 10 pain scale: Unrelieved abdominal pain of this severity and duration is clinically significant. The nurse must prepare to assess the pain further, ensure pain management protocols are available, and alert the provider for urgent evaluation upon arrival.
- Upper abdomen distention present with decreased bowel sounds in lower abdomen: This indicates a possible bowel obstruction, a condition that can rapidly become life-threatening. Distention and hypoactive bowel sounds are signs of impaired gastrointestinal motility that warrant immediate assessment and preparation for timely interventions.
- Client reports nausea and started vomiting orange-brown emesis yesterday afternoon that has foul odor: Foul-smelling, brownish emesis suggests fecal vomiting, a classic sign of a lower intestinal obstruction. This is a surgical emergency. The nurse must ensure suction equipment is ready, initiate NPO status, and anticipate imaging and provider notification.
- Last bowel movement 7 days ago: Prolonged absence of bowel movements in conjunction with vomiting and abdominal distention strengthens the concern for complete bowel obstruction. This requires immediate evaluation and cannot be ignored during transfer.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices:
- Lungs clear to auscultation: Clear lung sounds indicate the client is not experiencing acute respiratory distress. Since oxygenation appears intact and there are no signs of pulmonary compromise, this finding does not require urgent intervention before arrival.
- Heart sounds moderate and regular: The presence of regular, moderate heart sounds suggests a stable cardiac rhythm and adequate perfusion. In the absence of arrhythmias, chest pain, or abnormal heart tones, this cardiovascular assessment does not raise urgent concern.
- Vitals: Temperature 37.8° C (100° F), BP 120/80 mm Hg, pulse rate 100/min, respirations 20/min and regular: Although the temperature and heart rate are mildly elevated, they remain within acceptable clinical ranges. These values may reflect a response to discomfort, dehydration, or early infection, but they are not immediately alarming.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Prioritize treatment of symptoms over potential risks: While symptom control is important, the Beers Criteria emphasizes weighing both benefits and risks in older adults. Prioritizing symptom relief without addressing medication risks could lead to adverse outcomes.
B. Aim to improve medication safety and minimize harm: The Beers Criteria enhances prescribing safety in older adults by identifying medications with higher risk profiles. Its guiding principle is to reduce medication-related harm while supporting safe, treatment.
C. Focus on drug-drug interactions only: The Beers Criteria addresses more than just drug-drug interactions. It also highlights medications inappropriate due to age-related pharmacodynamics, comorbidities, and risks of adverse effects.
D. Base recommendations solely on medication cost-effectiveness: Cost is not the focus of the Beers Criteria. Instead, the emphasis is on clinical appropriateness, minimizing harm, and improving safety in prescribing for older adults.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Functional incontinence: This occurs when a person cannot recognize or respond to the urge to void due to cognitive, mobility, or environmental barriers. In this case, the client’s severe cognitive impairment prevents her from communicating her need to urinate.
B. Urge incontinence: Urge incontinence is characterized by a sudden, intense need to urinate followed by involuntary leakage, often due to overactive bladder. Since the client cannot express urgency or recognize the need to void, this does not fit the scenario.
C. Postvoid residual: Postvoid residual refers to urine left in the bladder after urination, usually due to incomplete emptying. It can cause overflow incontinence but does not explain incontinence due to unrecognized voiding needs caused by cognitive impairment.
D. Stress incontinence: Stress incontinence occurs with increased intra-abdominal pressure, such as during coughing, sneezing, or laughing, leading to leakage. This is unrelated to the client’s inability to recognize or communicate the urge to void.
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