A nurse is teaching the parent of a 3-year-old client about child development. Which of the following developmental tasks should the nurse include as the child's expected cognitive developmental stage?
Formal operational
Preoperational
Sensorimotor
Concrete operational
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. The formal operational stage (Piaget) occurs approximately from age 12 years and older. It is characterized by abstract thinking, logical reasoning, and hypothetical problem-solving, which are not yet developed in a 3-year-old child.
B. A 3-year-old child is in the preoperational stage of cognitive development (approximately 2–7 years). In this stage, the child demonstrates symbolic thinking, language development, imagination, and egocentrism. However, they lack logical reasoning and have difficulty understanding others’ perspectives.
C. The sensorimotor stage occurs from birth to about 2 years of age. It is characterized by learning through sensory experiences and motor activity, as well as the development of object permanence.
D. The concrete operational stage occurs approximately from 7–11 years of age. Children at this stage develop logical thinking about concrete events and understand concepts such as conservation, classification, and reversibility.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Morphine typically causes miosis (constricted pupils), not dilation. A pupil diameter of 6 mm (dilated pupils) is not an expected therapeutic effect, but it is not the most immediately life-threatening finding in this scenario compared with severe hypotension.
B. This equates to about 30 mL/hr, which is borderline low but still may be acceptable depending on the client’s weight, hydration status, and clinical context. Morphine can also cause urinary retention, so this finding should be monitored but is not the priority.
C. Constipation is a very common adverse effect of morphine due to decreased gastrointestinal motility. While important to address with stool softeners or laxatives, it is not an acute emergency.
D. This is the priority finding because it indicates severe hypotension, which can lead to decreased tissue perfusion, shock, and organ failure. Morphine can cause vasodilation and histamine release, contributing to hypotension, especially when given IV. This requires immediate intervention and provider notification first, as it is life-threatening.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. The nurse should not administer another dose of ibuprofen without first completing a proper pain assessment and verifying that it is safe based on dosing intervals and provider orders. Ibuprofen dosing is typically scheduled at specific intervals, and giving an additional dose without assessment may lead to overdose or adverse effects such as gastrointestinal bleeding or renal impairment.
B. The first action should always be to reassess the client’s pain using a standardized pain scale. Pain is subjective, and the nurse must gather objective data about severity, quality, and response to previous interventions before determining the next step. This assessment guides appropriate and safe intervention.
C. While the provider may need to be notified if pain is uncontrolled, the nurse must first assess the pain level and characteristics. Without reassessment, the nurse does not have sufficient data to communicate effectively or advocate for changes in the treatment plan.
D. Escalation to opioid therapy may be appropriate if pain is severe and unrelieved, but this decision must be based on a full assessment. Jumping directly to requesting opioids without reassessing violates the nursing process and may lead to inappropriate prescribing.
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