A nurse massages the uterus of a postpartum woman after making a hypothesis of uterine atony.
Which of the following outcomes would indicate that the client's condition had improved?
Decreased pain level.
Stable blood pressure.
Fundus firm at or below the umbilicus.
Reduced lochial flow.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Decreased pain level can be an effect of addressing the cause of pain, but it doesn't indicate improved uterine tone or resolution of atony.
Choice B rationale
Stable blood pressure is important, but it is not the direct outcome of improved uterine tone or the resolution of uterine atony.
Choice C rationale
A firm fundus at or below the umbilicus indicates successful contraction of the uterus, resolving uterine atony and reducing bleeding.
Choice D rationale
Reduced lochial flow can indicate decreased bleeding, but it does not directly indicate improved uterine tone or resolution of uterine atony.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.
Choice B rationale
A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.
Choice C rationale
A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.
Choice D rationale
A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
PTB is the leading cause of neonatal mortality and for antenatal hospitalization. This is accurate because preterm birth (PTB) is a significant cause of infant mortality and often requires extended hospital stays for the management of complications.
Choice B rationale
PTBs result in increased numbers of neonatal and infant deaths and long-term neurological impairment. This is accurate because preterm births are associated with higher rates of mortality and long-term health issues in infants.
Choice C rationale
PTL is defined as regular uterine contractions resulting in cervical changes before 37 weeks gestation. This is accurate because preterm labor (PTL) is indeed characterized by these symptoms occurring before full-term pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
Average costs for premature/low birthweight infants are more than 10 times as high than for other newborns. This is accurate because medical care for premature and low birthweight infants is significantly more expensive due to the need for specialized care and extended hospital stays.
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