A nurse massages the uterus of a postpartum woman after making a hypothesis of uterine atony.
Which of the following outcomes would indicate that the client's condition had improved?
Decreased pain level.
Stable blood pressure.
Fundus firm at or below the umbilicus.
Reduced lochial flow.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Decreased pain level can be an effect of addressing the cause of pain, but it doesn't indicate improved uterine tone or resolution of atony.
Choice B rationale
Stable blood pressure is important, but it is not the direct outcome of improved uterine tone or the resolution of uterine atony.
Choice C rationale
A firm fundus at or below the umbilicus indicates successful contraction of the uterus, resolving uterine atony and reducing bleeding.
Choice D rationale
Reduced lochial flow can indicate decreased bleeding, but it does not directly indicate improved uterine tone or resolution of uterine atony.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Bleeding is typically not associated with a vaginal hematoma; it is more indicative of other postpartum complications such as uterine atony or retained placenta fragments.
Choice B rationale
Warmth is usually associated with infection or inflammation. A hematoma is a collection of clotted blood outside the blood vessels, not typically characterized by warmth.
Choice C rationale
Redness might be seen in cases of infection or inflammation. A vaginal hematoma is a localized collection of blood and does not inherently cause redness.
Choice D rationale
Pain is a common symptom of a vaginal hematoma due to the pressure and swelling from the accumulated blood.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.
Choice B rationale
A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.
Choice C rationale
A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.
Choice D rationale
A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .
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