A client is on magnesium sulfate for pre-eclampsia with severe features.The nurse must notify the attending physician regarding which of the following findings?
Patellar and biceps reflexes of 3+.
Urinary output of 30 mL/hr.
Respiratory rate of 16 rpm.
Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dL. .
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Reflexes of 3+ indicate hyperreflexia, common in pre-eclampsia, but not necessarily critical. Monitoring is essential but not an emergency.
Choice B rationale
Urinary output of 30 mL/hr is within the acceptable range but requires monitoring for any changes. It's not a critical alert.
Choice C rationale
A respiratory rate of 16 rpm is normal and does not indicate immediate risk requiring physician notification.
Choice D rationale
Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dL is significantly high, indicating potential toxicity. Immediate physician notification is critical to adjust magnesium sulfate administration.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Postpartum psychosis is a serious mental health condition that can result in delusions and hallucinations. These symptoms increase the risk of harm to the infant, so it's essential that the mother is not left alone with the baby to ensure both their safety.
Choice B rationale
Symptoms of postpartum psychosis typically last longer than one week and require medical intervention, contrary to what is stated in this choice. Treatment usually involves antipsychotics, mood stabilizers, and sometimes hospitalization.
Choice C rationale
Clinical response to medications can be significant in many cases, and early and aggressive treatment often leads to improvement. This statement is inaccurate and does not reflect the current understanding of postpartum psychosis treatment.
Choice D rationale
While monitoring vital signs is essential, it is not as critical as ensuring the infant's safety given the mother’s severe mental condition. The focus should be on psychiatric management and safety protocols rather than routine vitals alone.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Reduction of fever is not a primary effect of carboprost tromethamine. This medication is primarily used to induce uterine contractions to manage postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice B rationale
While maintaining stable blood pressure is important, it is not the specific indicator of carboprost tromethamine's effectiveness. This medication is used to control bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Increased comfort, although significant, is not the direct effect of carboprost tromethamine. The primary aim is to induce uterine contractions to manage hemorrhage.
Choice D rationale
Decreased lochia rubra indicates the reduction of postpartum bleeding, which is the primary purpose of administering carboprost tromethamine. This outcome shows the medication is effective.
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