A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty.
A client who has a urinary tract infection and low-grade fever.
A client who has acute abdominal pain of 4 on a scale from 0 to 10.
A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason:
A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty should be seen first. Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, can be a sign of a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism, which is a medical emergency. Pulmonary embolism is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries in the lungs, usually caused by blood clots that travel to the lungs from the legs or other parts of the body. This condition requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent life-threatening consequences.
Choice B reason:
A client who has a urinary tract infection and low-grade fever is a concern, but it is not as urgent as the client with new onset dyspnea. Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common and can be managed with antibiotics and supportive care. While a low-grade fever indicates an infection, it does not pose an immediate threat to the client’s life. The nurse should still address this client’s needs, but it can be done after attending to the more urgent case.
Choice C reason:
A client who has acute abdominal pain of 4 on a scale from 0 to 10 should be assessed, but it is not as critical as the client with new onset dyspnea. Acute abdominal pain can have various causes, some of which may require urgent attention, but a pain level of 4 indicates moderate pain. The nurse should evaluate this client to determine the cause of the pain and provide appropriate interventions, but it can be done after addressing the more urgent case.
Choice D reason:
A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96% is stable at the moment. Oxygen saturation levels above 95% are generally considered acceptable in pneumonia patients. While pneumonia requires monitoring and treatment, the client’s current oxygen saturation level indicates that they are not in immediate respiratory distress. The nurse should continue to monitor this client and provide necessary care, but it can be done after attending to the more urgent case.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Lowering the head of the client’s bed to 15 degrees can help facilitate the drainage of the NG tube. This position uses gravity to assist in the movement of gastric contents through the tube. However, it is not the most effective method to address the issue of the NG tube not draining. This action might be more appropriate for other clinical scenarios, such as preventing aspiration, but it is not the primary intervention for a non-draining NG tube.
Choice B reason:
Injecting 10 mL of air into the vent lumen is a common technique used to clear an obstruction in the NG tube. This action can help dislodge any blockages that may be preventing the tube from draining properly. By injecting air, the nurse can ensure that the tube is patent and functioning correctly. This method is often recommended in clinical guidelines for managing NG tube blockages.
Choice C reason:
Placing the NG tube to high suction is not recommended as it can cause damage to the gastric mucosa and lead to complications such as bleeding or ulceration. High suction can create excessive negative pressure, which can harm the delicate tissues of the stomach lining. Therefore, this action is not appropriate for managing a non-draining NG tube and should be avoided.
Choice D reason:
Connecting the air vent to the suction is incorrect and can lead to malfunction of the NG tube. The air vent, also known as the pigtail, is designed to allow air to enter the stomach and prevent the tube from adhering to the gastric mucosa. Connecting it to suction would negate its purpose and could cause the tube to become blocked or damaged. This action is not recommended in any clinical guidelines for NG tube management.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
The four-point alternating gait is used when a client can bear weight on both legs. This gait provides maximum stability and is often used for clients with poor balance or coordination. It involves moving one crutch forward, followed by the opposite leg, then the other crutch, and finally the other leg. Since the client can only bear weight on one leg, this gait is not appropriate.
Choice B Reason:
The two-point alternating gait is also used when a client can bear weight on both legs. It is faster than the four-point gait and involves moving one crutch and the opposite leg simultaneously, followed by the other crutch and the opposite leg. This gait requires partial weight-bearing on both legs, making it unsuitable for a client who can only bear weight on one leg.
Choice C Reason:
The three-point gait is specifically designed for clients who can only bear weight on one leg. In this gait, both crutches are moved forward together, followed by the weight-bearing leg. The non-weight-bearing leg is then swung through. This gait provides the necessary support and stability for clients with one non-weight-bearing leg, making it the most appropriate choice in this scenario.
Choice D Reason:
The swing-through gait is used by clients who have good upper body strength and can bear weight on both legs, even if one leg is weaker. This gait involves moving both crutches forward together and then swinging both legs through to the crutches. It is not suitable for a client who can only bear weight on one leg, as it requires some degree of weight-bearing on both legs.
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