A nurse reviews a patient's medication list.
The patient is taking a drug that is highly protein-bound (greater than 89 percent). Which of these best explains the significance of highly protein-bound medications?
The drug is less likely to cause toxicity in a patient with hypoalbuminemia.
A large portion of the drug is inactive and will not exert a therapeutic effect.
The drug's metabolism will be significantly slower than a low protein-bound drug.
The drug will be excreted rapidly by the kidneys.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Hypoalbuminemia (normal range 3.5-5.5 g/dL) signifies fewer available binding sites, resulting in a higher fraction of the drug remaining unbound (free) in the plasma. Only the unbound fraction is pharmacologically active and capable of exerting a therapeutic or toxic effect. Therefore, hypoalbuminemia increases the risk of drug toxicity because more active drug is available.
Choice B rationale
When a medication is highly protein-bound, a large proportion of the drug molecules temporarily attaches to plasma proteins, mainly albumin. This bound fraction is sequestered and pharmacologically inactive, unable to diffuse out of the bloodstream to its target site or be metabolized/excreted, thus not contributing to the immediate therapeutic effect.
Choice C rationale
Protein binding acts as a reservoir, slowing the drug's elimination and maintaining a more consistent free drug concentration. While highly protein-bound drugs have a larger fraction sequestered, metabolism is primarily dependent on enzyme activity (e.g., CYP450) and intrinsic clearance, not directly on the initial degree of protein binding.
Choice D rationale
Only the unbound drug fraction is freely filtered by the glomerulus in the kidneys. High protein binding reduces the amount of free drug available for filtration and subsequent excretion, effectively prolonging the drug's half-life and delaying its elimination from the body, leading to a slower overall excretion rate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering omalizumab despite a reported allergy to peanuts is potentially unsafe because omalizumab has a black box warning for anaphylaxis, which can be life-threatening. While the peanut allergy may not directly contraindicate omalizumab, it suggests a heightened risk for severe allergic reactions due to atopy. Prudence dictates consulting the provider for risk assessment, skin testing, or alternative treatments, prioritizing patient safety before injection.
Choice B rationale
Omalizumab carries a risk of anaphylaxis, which can occur after any dose, including the first. A documented allergy, particularly to a common and potent allergen like peanuts, indicates a predisposition to hypersensitivity reactions (atopy). The most appropriate and safest nursing action is to withhold the injection and notify the healthcare provider to evaluate the risk and determine if the medication is still indicated or if precautions, such as desensitization or alternative therapy, are required.
Choice C rationale
Asking about recent anaphylaxis symptoms does not mitigate the potential risk of a future, severe reaction to omalizumab, which has a boxed warning for anaphylaxis. While a history of severe allergies is pertinent, the immediate safety concern is the risk of a severe hypersensitivity reaction to the drug itself. The nurse must address the reported allergy and the drug's known risks before proceeding with administration.
Choice D rationale
While ensuring an EpiPen is available is a precautionary measure for any patient receiving omalizumab due to the risk of anaphylaxis, it does not address the underlying concern of the documented peanut allergy, which might increase the patient's overall allergic predisposition. The nurse's first action must be to ensure the drug is safe to administer, which means consulting the provider about the allergy before administration.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hyperplasia is defined as an increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ. For example, the proliferation of glandular cells in the female breast during pregnancy. This differs from the described change where one cell type (ciliated columnar) is replaced by a different, more resilient cell type (squamous), without necessarily increasing cell number.
Choice B rationale
Anaplasia describes the loss of cellular differentiation, a hallmark of malignancy where cells revert to a more primitive, undifferentiated state. The resulting cells exhibit marked pleomorphism (variation in size/shape) and high mitotic activity, which is a far more severe and characteristic change than the adaptive cell substitution seen in the lung's lining.
Choice C rationale
Dysplasia involves deranged cellular growth, resulting in cells that vary in size, shape, and organization, and often signifies a pre-cancerous condition. The change in the smoker's lung (columnar to squamous) is typically a protective response, called metaplasia, which may progress to dysplasia but is not dysplasia itself initially.
Choice D rationale
Metaplasia is an adaptive reversible change where one differentiated adult cell type (in this case, ciliated columnar epithelium) is replaced by another differentiated adult cell type (stratified squamous epithelium). This is a protective response to chronic irritation, such as cigarette smoke, as the squamous cells are more robust, though they sacrifice the important function of mucous clearance.
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