A parent previously agreed that the psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner (PMHNP) and her 17-year-old son could discuss his treatment in confidentiality. Now, the mother is calling the PMHNP asking about his most recent diagnosis of gender dysphoria. What should the PMHNP do?
Answer all of the mother's questions.
Tell the mother she will need to come in person to discuss her son's case, because there is no way to guarantee the person on the phone is who she says she is.
Give the mother limited, vague answers.
Do not discuss the patient's treatment with her.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Answering all questions would violate the adolescent’s right to confidentiality and could undermine trust in the therapeutic relationship.
Choice B reason: Requiring in-person verification still may not address confidentiality concerns. The adolescent has the right to privacy about his health information at age 17, so even verified disclosure may be inappropriate without consent.
Choice C reason: Providing vague information may still constitute a breach of confidentiality and is not the safest professional practice.
Choice D reason: This is the correct answer. The PMHNP must respect the adolescent’s confidentiality regarding his diagnosis and treatment unless the patient provides consent to share information with his parent. This maintains trust and legal compliance with privacy laws.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: ECG changes are commonly seen in patients with anorexia nervosa due to malnutrition and electrolyte imbalances, so "no significant changes" is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Ventricular tachycardia is a life-threatening arrhythmia usually secondary to severe electrolyte disturbances, not a typical finding in early anorexia nervosa.
Choice C reason: This is correct. Sinus bradycardia is a common cardiac manifestation in anorexia nervosa, reflecting physiologic adaptation to malnutrition, reduced metabolic demands, and increased vagal tone. It is a supportive finding for the diagnosis.
Choice D reason: Torsades de pointes is associated with prolonged QT intervals and severe hypokalemia or other electrolyte disturbances. While it may occur in extreme cases, it is not a typical finding in initial anorexia nervosa evaluation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Aspirin would not address the underlying cause of facial nerve inflammation and offers only analgesic benefit.
Choice B reason: Antibiotics are indicated if bacterial infection is present, but this presentation is consistent with Bell’s palsy, which is idiopathic or viral in origin.
Choice C reason: Surgery is reserved for cases involving trauma or tumor-related nerve compression, not idiopathic facial paralysis.
Choice D reason: Corticosteroids are the first-line treatment for Bell’s palsy, which is an acute, unilateral facial nerve paralysis due to inflammation and edema of the facial nerve. Steroids reduce nerve swelling and improve recovery of function if initiated within 72 hours of symptom onset.
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