A mother is concerned about her 14-year-old daughter, who is not experiencing pubertal changes. Her height is lower than average for age. She is of normal intelligence. Upon assessment, the nurse practitioner notes extra folds of skin on her neck. What treatment is most appropriate?
Estrogen
Testosterone
None
Synthetic thyroid
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Delayed puberty with features such as lack of secondary sexual characteristics, short stature, and physical anomalies such as extra neck folds may indicate Turner syndrome. Estrogen therapy is essential to induce the development of secondary sexual characteristics and support bone health.
Choice B reason: Testosterone is indicated for male hypogonadism or delayed puberty in boys. It is not appropriate for a female patient with delayed puberty.
Choice C reason: Doing nothing delays sexual development, potentially affects bone health, and does not address underlying endocrine issues. This is not appropriate management.
Choice D reason: Synthetic thyroid addresses hypothyroidism, but this patient presents with delayed puberty and physical features consistent with Turner syndrome rather than thyroid deficiency. Thyroid therapy alone will not initiate puberty.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: IUD insertion is a contraceptive method and is contraindicated in a patient seeking pregnancy.
Choice B reason: Cervical dilation mechanically opens a stenotic cervical canal, restoring patency and allowing sperm to pass into the uterus, directly addressing infertility caused by cervical stenosis.
Choice C reason: Colposcopy is a diagnostic procedure for cervical lesions, not a therapeutic intervention for infertility caused by stenosis.
Choice D reason: LEEP (loop electrosurgical excision procedure) is used to remove abnormal cervical tissue for dysplasia treatment; it does not address cervical canal obstruction and is inappropriate for this scenario.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is correct. Systemic estrogen therapy is the first-line treatment for moderate to severe vasomotor symptoms in perimenopausal and postmenopausal women. It effectively reduces hot flashes and associated symptoms.
Choice B reason: Clonidine, an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist, may help with vasomotor symptoms but is less effective and not considered first-line.
Choice C reason: Gabapentin can reduce hot flashes, especially in women who cannot take hormone therapy, but it is second-line.
Choice D reason: Ospemifene is used for dyspareunia related to vulvovaginal atrophy and does not treat vasomotor symptoms.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
