A patient, age 68, has a long history of COPD and is admitted to the hospital with cor pulmonale. He says his doctor said his heart was failing and asks whether he is having a heart attack. Which explanation by the nurse is most correct?
"It could be a heart attack, and when the heart is damaged it causes respiratory damage, too."
"It isn't a heart attack, but your heart has gradually weakened over the years, causing respiratory disease."
It is probably a heart attack, since cor pulmonale means that the heart isn't getting enough blood and becomes too weak to pump effectively."
"You aren't having a heart attack, but your heart has been damaged by changes in your lungs caused by your respiratory disease."
The Correct Answer is D
A. "It could be a heart attack, and when the heart is damaged it causes respiratory damage, too.” This misrepresents the pathophysiology of cor pulmonale. Cor pulmonale results from lung disease impacting heart function, not vice versa.
B. "It isn't a heart attack, but your heart has gradually weakened over the years, causing respiratory disease." In cor pulmonale, chronic respiratory disease leads to right-sided heart failure not the other way around.
C. "It is probably a heart attack, since cor pulmonale means that the heart isn't getting enough blood and becomes too weak to pump effectively." Cor pulmonale, is not about coronary blood flow but rather the increased pulmonary pressure due to chronic lung disease that strains the right side of the heart.
D. "You aren't having a heart attack, but your heart has been damaged by changes in your lungs caused by your respiratory disease." Cor pulmonale is right-sided heart failure caused by chronic lung disease such as COPD. Increased resistance in the pulmonary circulation puts strain on the right ventricle, leading to its dysfunction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Take an extra dose if the cough is accompanied by fever:Increasing the dosage without medical direction is unsafe and could lead to overdose or side effects. A fever with a cough may indicate infection and should prompt medical evaluation, not increased self-dosing.
B. Take the tablet with a full glass of water:Guaifenesin is an expectorant that helps loosen mucus in the airways. Taking it with a full glass of water enhances its effectiveness by promoting hydration, which is essential for thinning and mobilizing secretions.
C. Crush the sustained-release tablet if immediate relief is needed:Sustained-release tablets should never be crushed, as this destroys the time-release mechanism and can lead to rapid drug release and toxicity.
D. Be aware of irritability as a side effect:Irritability is not a common or expected side effect of guaifenesin. More typical side effects include nausea, vomiting, or dizziness. This instruction is misleading and not relevant for patient education.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. “The client needs immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation.”Intubation may be required in severe respiratory failure, but not all clients with pulmonary embolism need mechanical ventilation. Suggesting intubation without assessment of the client’s respiratory effort or ABGs is premature.
B. "Maybe the client has respiratory distress syndrome."ARDS is can impair oxygenation, but it is not the most likely explanation for persistent low oxygen saturation in PE. PE more commonly causes ventilation-perfusion mismatch due to blocked blood flow.
C. "The client is breathing too slowly and it interferes with oxygenation."Slow breathing could impair ventilation, but in PE, oxygenation is impaired because blood flow to parts of the lung is blocked, not necessarily due to a respiratory rate issue.
D. "The blood clot interferes with perfusion in the lungs."Pulmonary embolism obstructs blood flow in the pulmonary arteries, resulting in areas of the lung being ventilated but not perfused. This causes a ventilation-perfusion mismatch and leads to reduced oxygenation despite supplemental oxygen.
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