A patient asks the nurse to explain how antipsychotic drugs work to make him feel better. The nurse understands that antipsychotics act in which way?
Blocking actions of dopamine
Blocking actions of epinephrine
Promoting prostaglandin synthesis
Enhancing the action of gamma-aminobutyric acid
The Correct Answer is A
Antipsychotic medications, particularly first-generation (typical) and many second-generation (atypical) agents, are primarily used to manage psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. Their main mechanism involves modulating neurotransmitter activity in the brain, especially by affecting dopamine pathways, which play a key role in regulating mood, cognition, and perception.
Rationale for correct answer:
A. Blocking actions of dopamine – Antipsychotics exert their therapeutic effect by blocking dopamine D2 receptors in the mesolimbic pathway, which reduces positive symptoms of psychosis such as hallucinations and delusions. Some atypical antipsychotics also target serotonin receptors, improving negative symptoms.
Rationale for incorrect answer:
B. Blocking actions of epinephrine – Epinephrine is involved in the fight-or-flight response and does not play a central role in psychotic symptom development. Blocking epinephrine would not relieve hallucinations or delusions.
C. Promoting prostaglandin synthesis – Prostaglandins are mediators of inflammation and pain, unrelated to the mechanism of antipsychotic drugs.
D. Enhancing the action of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) – GABA enhancement is the mechanism of benzodiazepines and some sedative-hypnotics, not antipsychotics. It primarily produces CNS depression rather than antipsychotic effects.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Fluphenazine (Prolixin) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic commonly prescribed for schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders. These drugs are effective at controlling positive psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, but they carry a significant risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) due to potent dopamine D2 receptor blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway.
Rationale for correct answer:
C. Benztropine (Cogentin) – Benztropine is an anticholinergic agent used specifically to treat EPS, including acute dystonia, parkinsonism, and akathisia. By restoring the balance between acetylcholine and dopamine in the CNS, it alleviates involuntary movements and muscle rigidity caused by dopamine blockade. Administering benztropine promptly can prevent progression of symptoms and reduce patient distress.
Rationale for incorrect answer:
A. Quetiapine (Seroquel) – This atypical antipsychotic has a lower risk of EPS and is not used to treat EPS caused by other antipsychotics. It primarily targets positive and negative symptoms of psychosis without reversing motor side effects.
B. Aripiprazole (Abilify) – Another second-generation antipsychotic, aripiprazole is not indicated for managing EPS. Its mechanism is a partial dopamine agonist, which does not reverse EPS caused by dopamine antagonists.
D. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) – This is a typical antipsychotic that can also cause EPS. Using it would worsen extrapyramidal symptoms, making it inappropriate for treatment.
Take-home points:
- Benztropine is first-line therapy for EPS caused by typical antipsychotics.
- Early identification of EPS is crucial to prevent falls, injury, and medication nonadherence.
- Nurses should educate patients and caregivers to report involuntary movements promptly and monitor for both acute and long-term side effects.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Tardive dyskinesia (TD) is a late-onset, potentially irreversible movement disorder associated with long-term use of first-generation antipsychotics like loxapine. It is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements, particularly of the face, lips, tongue, and sometimes the extremities. Regular monitoring using the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) is crucial for early detection and intervention.
Rationale for correct answer:
B. Tardive dyskinesia – Correct. TD often develops after months to years of antipsychotic therapy. The hallmark signs include lip smacking, tongue protrusion, chewing motions, and facial grimacing, matching the client’s AIMS findings. Early detection is important, as symptoms may become irreversible if the drug is continued.
Rationale for incorrect answer:
A. Parkinsonism – Typically presents with rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremors, resembling Parkinson’s disease. These symptoms usually appear early in treatment, not after long-term use.
C. Anticholinergic effects – These include dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention. They do not explain the involuntary facial and tongue movements observed in this client.
D. Akathisia – Characterized by inner restlessness, inability to sit still, and pacing, typically occurring shortly after starting or increasing antipsychotic therapy. The client’s symptoms are distinctly involuntary movements, not restlessness.
Take-home points:
- Tardive dyskinesia is a late-onset, often irreversible adverse effect of long-term antipsychotic therapy.
- Regular AIMS assessments are essential for early detection and intervention.
- Prompt reporting of symptoms can guide the provider in adjusting therapy to prevent progression.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
