A patient has been instructed to increase the protein in her diet.
Which statement by the patient shows a need for further instruction?
“Instead of having eggs, I am eating yogurt for breakfast.”.
“I’m adding some powdered milk to the skim milk I drink.”.
“I’ve been having some peanut butter on my crackers every afternoon.”.
“Instead of having some grapes for a snack, I’m having a cup of cream of tomato soup.”.
The Correct Answer is A
he correct answer is choice A. “Instead of having eggs, I am eating yogurt for breakfast.” This statement shows a need for further instruction because eggs are a good source of protein and yogurt is not.
Yogurt is a dairy product that contains mostly carbohydrates and some fat.
Eggs are an animal product that contains mostly protein and some fat.
Protein is important for building and repairing tissues in the body.
Choice B is correct because adding powdered milk to skim milk increases the protein content of the drink.
Powdered milk is a dairy product that contains protein, carbohydrates and fat.
Skim milk is a dairy product that contains protein and carbohydrates but no fat.
Choice C is correct because peanut butter is a good source of protein and healthy fats.
Peanut butter is a plant product that contains protein, fat and some carbohydrates.
Crackers are a grain product that contains mostly carbohydrates and some protein.
Choice D is correct because cream of tomato soup is a good source of protein and calories.
Cream of tomato soup is a processed food that contains tomatoes, cream, flour and seasonings.
Tomatoes are a vegetable that contains mostly water and some carbohydrates.
Cream is a dairy product that contains mostly fat and some protein.
Flour is a grain product that contains mostly carbohydrates and some protein.
Seasonings are herbs and spices that contain mostly flavor and some nutrients.
The normal range of protein intake for adults is 0.8 to 1 gram per kilogram of body weight per day.
This means that an adult who weighs 70 kilograms should consume about 56 to 70 grams of protein per day.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Syphilis.A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test indicates that a patient is probably not infected with syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum.The RPR test works by detecting the nonspecific antibodies that your body produces while fighting the infection.
Choice A is wrong because herpes simplex II is a viral infection that causes genital herpes, and it is not detected by the RPR test.
Choice C is wrong because gonorrhea is a bacterial infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and it is also not detected by the RPR test.
Choice D is wrong because condylomata are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), and they are not detected by the RPR test either.
The RPR test is a screening test, and it can give false-positive results due to other conditions or infections.Therefore, a positive RPR test should always be confirmed by a more specific treponemal test, such as TPPA or FTA-ABS.The RPR test can also be used to monitor the treatment response of syphilis, as the antibody levels should decrease after effective antibiotic therapy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A transverse lie means that the baby is lying sideways across the uterus, instead of head-down or breech.
This position makes vaginal delivery impossible and increases the risk of umbilical cord prolapse, which can compromise fetal oxygen supply.Therefore, a cesarean delivery is indicated for a fetus in a transverse lie.
Choice A is wrong because having extremely slender hips does not necessarily mean that a woman cannot deliver vaginally.
The size and shape of the pelvis, not the external appearance, determines the adequacy of the birth canal.A trial of labor may be attempted for women with borderline pelvic measurements.
Choice C is wrong because fetal hyperactivity is not a reason for a cesarean delivery.
Fetal movements may vary depending on the time of day, maternal activity, maternal blood sugar level, and other factors.Fetal well-being can be assessed by fetal heart rate monitoring and biophysical profile.
Choice D is wrong because having a posterior cervix does not indicate the need for a cesarean delivery.
A posterior cervix means that the cervix is tilted toward the back of the uterus, which may make cervical dilation slower and more painful.However, with adequate contractions and maternal pushing, the cervix can move to an anterior position and allow vaginal delivery.
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