A client who is two weeks postpartum calls the office and tells a nurse, "l am having a small amount of brownish discharge from my vagina." Which response is appropriate for the nurse to make?
"The discharge that you are describing is normal at this time."
"Have you been running a fever?".
“It sounds as if you have begun to ovulate again."
"Are you taking iron supplements?".
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A: “The discharge that you are describing is normal at this time.” This is because the client is experiencing lochia serosa, which is a brownish discharge that occurs from about day 4 to day 10 postpartum.
Lochia serosa is composed of old blood, serum, leukocytes, and tissue debris.
It indicates that the placental site is healing and the uterus is involuting.
Choice B is wrong because fever is a sign of infection, not normal lochia.
Choice C is wrong because ovulation usually does not resume until 6 weeks postpartum for nonbreastfeeding women and later for breastfeeding women.
Choice D is wrong because iron supplements do not affect lochia color or amount.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in blood.This is apositive sign of pregnancythat can only be attributed to a fetus.hCG is a hormone produced by the placenta that can be detected in blood or urine tests.
Choice A. Quickening.This is apresumptive sign of pregnancythat is based on the woman’s report of feeling fetal movements in her lower abdomen.This can occur at 16 weeks for second time moms and around 20 weeks for first time moms.However, this sign is not conclusive as other conditions can cause similar sensations.
Choice B. Uterine enlargement.This is aprobable sign of pregnancythat can be observed by the nurse or doctor through palpation.However, this sign does not mean 100% that a baby is growing in the uterus as it can be due to other causes such as fibroids or tumors.
Choice C. Urinary frequency.This is apresumptive sign of pregnancythat is based on the woman’s report of needing to urinate more often than usual.This can be caused by hormonal changes and increased blood volume during pregnancy.However, this sign is not definitive as other conditions such as urinary tract infections or diabetes can also cause frequent urination.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Apply petrolatum to the patient’s perineum.This is because petrolatum can help soothe and protect the perineal area, which may be swollen, bruised, or have stitches after a vaginal delivery.Applying petrolatum can also prevent the pad from sticking to the wound and causing more pain.
Choice A is wrong because observing the patient for vaginal discharge of bright red blood is not a specific action for perineal care.Bright red blood may indicate postpartum hemorrhage, which requires immediate medical attention.
Choice B is wrong because assessing the patient’s vaginal tone is not a priority action for perineal care.Vaginal tone may be reduced after childbirth due to stretching of the pelvic floor muscles, but this can improve with time and exercises.
Choice C is wrong because massaging the patient’s perineum is not recommended for perineal care.Massaging the perineum may cause more trauma and discomfort to the area, especially if there are stitches or hemorrhoids.Massaging the fundus (the top of the uterus) may be done to help it contract and prevent bleeding, but this is different from massaging the perineum.
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