A patient has prescriptions for two inhalers: a bronchodilator and a corticosteroid.
What instruction regarding the administration of these inhalers will the nurse provide to the patient?
Take them both at least 2 hours apart.
Take the corticosteroid first.
Take the bronchodilator first.
It does not matter the order of administration.
The Correct Answer is C
This question addresses the safe administration of inhaled medications. It requires applying the principle of bronchodilation to optimize the airway for the subsequent delivery of anti-inflammatory steroids, which ensures maximum drug deposition and efficacy in treating obstructive pulmonary conditions like asthma or COPD.
Choice A rationale
Waiting 2 hours between inhaler doses is not required. The goal of sequential inhalation is to provide immediate, sequential therapeutic effects. Increasing the wait time to 2 hours is clinically unnecessary and reduces the overall efficiency of the patient's medication regimen.
Choice B rationale
Taking the corticosteroid first would be ineffective because the anti-inflammatory medication needs to reach deep into the airways. Without the prior use of a bronchodilator to open the airways, the corticosteroid may be deposited primarily in the oropharynx.
Choice C rationale
Taking the bronchodilator first opens the airways by relaxing the smooth muscles of the bronchioles. This increases the total surface area and airway diameter, allowing the subsequently administered corticosteroid to reach the distal lung tissues for maximum therapeutic anti-inflammatory effect.
Choice D rationale
The order of administration is critical for efficacy. If the corticosteroid is taken without the bronchodilator, the medication delivery is significantly less effective due to the smaller airway diameter, resulting in poor drug penetration and decreased relief for the patient..
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This question requires evaluating the efficacy of pain management interventions. By comparing post-intervention assessments against the predefined therapeutic threshold of less than 3 out of 10, the nurse can identify failed goals, indicating the need for a reassessment and modification of the treatment plan.
Choice A rationale
Restlessness and the inability to sleep at 0100 hours are objective clinical indicators of uncontrolled pain. These behaviors demonstrate that the current analgesic regimen is insufficient, confirming that the therapeutic goal of a pain level less than 3 was not achieved.
Choice B rationale
Improved ability to participate in self-care with minimal assistance is a positive clinical indicator of successful pain management. This suggests the patient is functioning better, which supports the conclusion that the pain interventions have effectively contributed to their functional recovery.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining 7.5 hours of uninterrupted sleep is a clear sign that the patient is comfortable and effectively resting. This outcome indicates the analgesic medication is providing the necessary relief to support restorative sleep, confirming that the therapeutic goal was met.
Choice D rationale
Eating breakfast without nausea indicates that the patient is tolerating their medication and is free from the adverse effects or physiological distress associated with uncontrolled pain. This signifies a successful response to the pain management protocol implemented by the nursing staff.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This question tests patient understanding of potassium-sparing diuretics. It requires identifying the need for further education when a patient plans to alter their medication dosage independently, which poses a severe risk of life-threatening electrolyte imbalances, particularly hyperkalemia, in patients prescribed this diuretic therapy.
Choice A rationale
Taking spironolactone with food is recommended as it helps to increase the drug's oral bioavailability and significantly reduces the common gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea or stomach upset, which are frequently reported by patients during the initial weeks of treatment.
Choice B rationale
Patients must never independently alter their medication dose. Spironolactone acts as an aldosterone antagonist, and self-adjusting the dose can lead to erratic blood pressure control or severe, potentially life-threatening hyperkalemia, which is a significant clinical risk requiring ongoing provider monitoring.
Choice C rationale
Spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia, which significantly increases the risk of cardiac dysrhythmias. Patients are rightly taught to monitor for signs of irregular heartbeats, such as palpitations or skipped beats, and report these concerns immediately to ensure proper cardiovascular safety and monitoring.
Choice D rationale
Salt substitutes often contain potassium chloride, and potassium-rich foods can contribute to dangerous elevations in serum potassium levels. Patients on spironolactone are at a high risk for hyperkalemia (normal range 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L) and must avoid these dietary sources.
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