A patient with depression is prescribed sertraline 50 mg once daily. If the medication is administered for 14 days, what is the total dosage in milligrams?
700 mg.
500 mg.
750 mg.
600 mg.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: The patient is prescribed 50 mg of sertraline daily for 14 days. The total dosage is calculated as 50 mg/day × 14 days = 700 mg, making this the correct answer.
Choice B reason: A total of 500 mg would imply a daily dose of approximately 35.7 mg (500 ÷ 14), which does not match the prescribed 50 mg daily dose. This is incorrect.
Choice C reason: A total of 750 mg would imply a daily dose of approximately 53.6 mg (750 ÷ 14), which exceeds the prescribed 50 mg daily dose. This is incorrect.
Choice D reason: A total of 600 mg would imply a daily dose of approximately 42.9 mg (600 ÷ 14), which is less than the prescribed 50 mg daily dose. This is incorrect.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:Clozapine is an antipsychotic used primarily for schizophrenia, not for preventing seizures. While it may lower the seizure threshold as a side effect, it is not prescribed for seizure control, making this statement incorrect.
Choice B reason:Clozapine is typically administered orally, not by intramuscular injection every 2 weeks. Long-acting injectable antipsychotics exist, but clozapine is not one of them, so this statement does not reflect correct understanding.
Choice C reason:Clozapine can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to dizziness or fainting upon standing. Rising slowly from a lying position helps prevent this, indicating the client understands an important precaution for safe use of the medication.
Choice D reason:Ringing in the ears (tinnitus) is not a common side effect of clozapine. More common side effects include sedation, weight gain, and agranulocytosis, so this statement does not show correct understanding.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Offering medication immediately does not address the client’s emotional state and undermines the use of therapeutic communication, which is the first-line intervention for moderate anxiety.
Choice B reason: This response is generic and educational, which is not appropriate in a crisis moment. The client needs immediate support and de-escalation.
Choice C reason: This response is inappropriate and harmful, suggesting a restraint that is not indicated and would likely worsen the client’s distress.
Choice D reason: This is the best therapeutic response. It provides a safe environment for the client to express feelings and decreases external stimuli, helping to reduce anxiety.
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