A patient with type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is admitted to the medical unit with an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
He is placed on IV piggyback antibiotics, nebulizer treatments with albuterol, and an IV corticosteroid, and he is also taking a proton pump inhibitor for gastroesophageal reflux disease.
He takes a dose of glargine insulin every evening.
This evening the nurse notes that his blood glucose level is 170 mg/dL. The next morning, his fasting glucose level is 202 mg/dL. What is the most likely cause of his elevated glucose levels?
The albuterol.
The corticosteroid.
The antibiotics.
The proton pump inhibitor.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Albuterol, a short-acting beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can cause a transient increase in blood glucose levels by stimulating glycogenolysis in the liver and muscles. This effect is dose-dependent and typically short-lived. However, the continuous and sustained elevation from 170 to 202 mg/dL is more characteristic of a medication with a longer-acting metabolic effect. While possible, it is not the most likely cause.
Choice B rationale
Corticosteroids, such as prednisone or methylprednisolone, significantly increase blood glucose by promoting gluconeogenesis and inhibiting glucose uptake by peripheral tissues, leading to insulin resistance. This effect is prolonged and dose-dependent, making it a very common cause of hyperglycemia in patients, especially those with pre-existing conditions like Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus, who are already susceptible to glucose dysregulation.
Choice C rationale
Antibiotics, in general, are not known to directly cause a sustained increase in blood glucose levels. Some antibiotics like fluoroquinolones can affect glucose metabolism, but they are more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, although hyperglycemia can also occur. The effect is not as pronounced or as likely as that of corticosteroids in this clinical scenario.
Choice D rationale
Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) work by inhibiting the H+/K+ ATPase pump in gastric parietal cells, reducing stomach acid production. There is no established direct physiological mechanism by which PPIs cause a sustained increase in blood glucose levels. Their primary effect is on the gastrointestinal system, and they do not significantly impact carbohydrate metabolism in the way that corticosteroids do.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
D5W (dextrose 5% in water) is an isotonic solution in the bag but becomes hypotonic in the body as dextrose is metabolized, leading to free water redistribution. This fluid is not ideal for dehydration as it does not contain electrolytes and can potentially dilute existing electrolytes, which is counterproductive for replacing lost volume and salts.
Choice B rationale
0.9% normal saline is an isotonic solution, meaning it has a similar concentration of solutes to the body's plasma. It is the most appropriate choice for treating dehydration, as it replenishes both fluid volume and sodium chloride, which are commonly lost during dehydration, effectively expanding the intravascular compartment without causing major fluid shifts.
Choice C rationale
0.45% saline, or half-normal saline, is a hypotonic solution with half the sodium concentration of normal saline. This fluid is used to replace free water deficits and for hypernatremia, but it is not the first-line choice for general dehydration as it does not effectively expand the intravascular volume and can cause fluid shifts into cells.
Choice D rationale
Packed red blood cells (PRBCs) are blood products used for anemia or significant blood loss to increase oxygen-carrying capacity. They are not a fluid replacement for dehydration. Administering blood when it's not clinically indicated for fluid volume deficit is inappropriate and carries risks of transfusion reactions and fluid overload.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Increasing fluid intake is not the appropriate action for muscle cramps caused by a thiazide diuretic. Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, work by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule. This increases water excretion. The muscle cramps are related to electrolyte imbalances, not a lack of hydration.
Choice B rationale
Discontinuing the medication immediately is not the first step and requires a provider's order. The nurse's initial action should be to gather data to confirm the cause of the cramps. If the cramps are related to hypokalemia, discontinuing the medication without provider consultation could lead to other complications and is not within the nurse's scope of practice.
Choice C rationale
Thiazide diuretics cause the excretion of sodium, chloride, and potassium from the kidneys, leading to hypokalemia. The normal potassium range is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. Muscle cramps are a classic symptom of hypokalemia. The nurse should check the patient's serum potassium levels to confirm the suspected electrolyte imbalance and inform the provider for further management, such as a potassium supplement.
Choice D rationale
While regular exercise is beneficial for overall health, encouraging more exercise would not address the underlying cause of the muscle cramps related to the medication's effect on electrolytes. In fact, intense exercise could worsen the situation by causing further fluid and electrolyte loss through sweating.
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