A patient with type 2 diabetes is taking Ozempic (a GLP-1 receptor agonist) and is scheduled for elective surgery.
Which preoperative teaching should the nurse provide regarding the medication?
Increase the dose of Ozempic on the morning of surgery to prevent hyperglycemia caused by surgical stress.
Continue Ozempic as usual to maintain stable blood glucose levels throughout the perioperative period.
Discontinue Ozempic 1 week before surgery to reduce the risk of hypoglycemia and delayed gastric emptying.
Switch to an oral hypoglycemic agent the day before surgery to avoid injection-related complications.
The Correct Answer is C
This question tests understanding of perioperative medication management for patients on incretin mimetics. It requires applying knowledge of how GLP-1 receptor agonists affect gastric emptying, which poses a significant aspiration risk during anesthesia, necessitating cessation prior to elective surgical procedures to ensure patient safety.
Choice A rationale
Increasing the dose is contraindicated because it would exacerbate gastrointestinal motility concerns and increase the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. Furthermore, perioperative hyperglycemia is managed with sliding-scale insulin, not by increasing non-insulin injectable medications on the morning of surgery.
Choice B rationale
Continuing GLP-1 agonists is unsafe because these medications delay gastric emptying. If the stomach remains full during induction of anesthesia, the risk of vomiting and pulmonary aspiration significantly increases, which can lead to life-threatening respiratory complications for the patient.
Choice C rationale
Guidelines recommend holding GLP-1 receptor agonists 1 week before elective surgery. This timeframe allows the drug's effect on gastric emptying to dissipate, reducing the risk of aspiration during anesthesia while also preventing potential complications from unpredictable blood glucose management during surgery.
Choice D rationale
Switching to oral hypoglycemics is not an evidence-based practice for perioperative management. Oral agents have different metabolic and kinetic profiles, and the focus during the surgical period is on maintaining glycemic control through insulin therapy, not shifting to different oral drug classes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This question assesses knowledge of coagulation monitoring for vitamin K antagonists. It requires identifying the correct laboratory markers used to titrate warfarin, which is essential to achieve a therapeutic anticoagulant effect while minimizing the risk of life-threatening bleeding complications in clinical practice.
Choice A rationale
The aPTT is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of intravenous heparin therapy, which acts through the intrinsic coagulation pathway. It is not an appropriate laboratory test for monitoring the effects of warfarin, which acts on the extrinsic pathway.
Choice B rationale
While platelet levels are monitored in patients on anticoagulants to detect heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, they are not the diagnostic marker used to titrate warfarin doses. Warfarin does not significantly impact platelet counts in a way that requires dosage adjustment.
Choice C rationale
Warfarin therapy is monitored using the Prothrombin Time (PT) and the International Normalized Ratio (INR). These tests measure the time it takes for blood to clot via the extrinsic pathway, allowing for precise dosage adjustments to maintain therapeutic anticoagulation.
Choice D rationale
Red blood cell counts are used to monitor for anemia or potential hemorrhage, but they do not provide information regarding the therapeutic range of warfarin anticoagulation. They are a consequence of monitoring for safety, not a tool for medication titration.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This question addresses the monitoring requirements for beta-adrenergic antagonists used in ophthalmic preparations. It requires recognizing that even topical medications can cause systemic absorption, leading to cardiovascular effects like bradycardia, which necessitates assessment of the patient's pulse before drug administration.
Choice A rationale
While peripheral pulses assess circulation, they are not the primary systemic cardiovascular parameter affected by beta-blockers. Monitoring the heart rate is more direct and sensitive for detecting the specific systemic adverse effects of this class of ophthalmic medication.
Choice B rationale
Assessing orientation is part of a neurological assessment, not a specific priority for a patient receiving betaxolol eye drops. The nurse focuses on systemic effects relevant to the drug’s pharmacological category, which is cardiovascular rather than neurological in this context.
Choice C rationale
Although beta-blockers can mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia in diabetic patients, monitoring blood sugar is not the standard priority intervention before administering ophthalmic betaxolol. The most immediate systemic concern is potential bradycardia resulting from the drug's beta-1 blocking effects.
Choice D rationale
Betaxolol is a cardioselective beta-1 blocker. Even when administered topically to the eye, it can be systemically absorbed and cause bradycardia. Therefore, the nurse must assess the apical pulse rate before each dose to ensure the heart rate is within safe parameters.
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