A pregnant client G1, PO with severe daily nausea and vomiting at 17 weeks is diagnosed with Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The nurse understands that which factor is most associated with the development of Hyperemesis Gravidarum?
Placental insufficiency
High levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
Increased insulin resistance
Low levels of progesterone
The Correct Answer is B
A. Placental insufficiency is not directly associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. While it can cause other pregnancy complications such as intrauterine growth restriction or preeclampsia, it does not typically cause the severe nausea and vomiting seen in hyperemesis gravidarum.
B. High levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) are most strongly associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. HCG is produced by the placenta, and its levels peak during the first trimester, coinciding with the timing of severe nausea and vomiting. Multiparous pregnancies, molar pregnancies, and multiple gestations, conditions associated with higher HCG levels, also carry an increased risk of hyperemesis gravidarum. The exact mechanism is not fully understood, but HCG is thought to stimulate the vomiting center in the brain and influence gastric motility.
C. Increased insulin resistance occurs naturally in pregnancy, especially in the second and third trimesters, and is associated with gestational diabetes, but it is not a primary factor in the development of hyperemesis gravidarum.
D. Low levels of progesterone are not associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. In fact, progesterone rises in early pregnancy and helps maintain the uterine lining and support pregnancy; it may contribute to slowed gastric motility, but low levels are not causative of hyperemesis gravidarum.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Profuse, clear vaginal discharge is not characteristic of a hydatidiform mole. Vaginal bleeding associated with this condition is usually dark brown or bright red, often described as “prune juice–like”, rather than clear discharge.
B. An irregular fetal heart rate would be expected in a viable pregnancy with fetal distress, but a hydatidiform mole involves abnormal trophoblastic proliferation without a viable fetus (in most complete moles), so fetal heart activity is typically absent.
C. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels are usually markedly elevated, not declining, in a hydatidiform mole due to abnormal proliferation of trophoblastic tissue. A rapid decline in hCG would be expected after treatment, not during initial presentation.
D. Excessive uterine enlargement is a classic finding in hydatidiform mole. The uterus is often larger than expected for gestational age due to abnormal growth of trophoblastic tissue and fluid-filled vesicles. This finding, along with markedly elevated hCG and abnormal vaginal bleeding, is a key diagnostic clue for this condition.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The hallmark symptom of an ectopic pregnancy is sharp or crampy abdominal pain localized to one side, corresponding to the location of the implanted embryo, usually in the fallopian tube. The pain may be sudden or intermittent, and sometimes radiates to the shoulder or neck if internal bleeding irritates the diaphragm. Early recognition is critical to prevent tubal rupture and hemorrhage.
B. Vaginal bleeding is often present in ectopic pregnancy, typically lighter or irregular compared to normal menses. Absence of bleeding does not rule out ectopic pregnancy; in fact, bleeding may be a key early symptom in combination with abdominal pain.
C. While nausea and vomiting are common in normal intrauterine pregnancies, they are not specific to ectopic pregnancy. Their presence alone does not suggest ectopic implantation.
D. In ectopic pregnancy, the uterus is usually small for gestational age or may show only minimal changes because the pregnancy is developing outside the uterine cavity. Uterine enlargement is more characteristic of a normal intrauterine pregnancy or molar pregnancy.
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