A school nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent about levonorgestrel contraception. Which of the following information should the nurse Include in the teaching?
"You should take the medication within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse."
"You should avoid taking this medication if you are on an oral contraceptive."
"If you don't start your period within 5 days of taking this medication, you will need a pregnancy test."
"One dose of this medication will prevent you from becoming pregnant for 14 days after taking it”
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason:
"You should take the medication within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse." This statement is accurate. Levonorgestrel is an emergency contraceptive that is effective when taken within 72 hours (3 days) after unprotected sexual intercourse. It is crucial to use it as soon as possible for optimal effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
Choice B Reason:
"You should avoid taking this medication if you are on an oral contraceptive." This statement is not accurate. Levonorgestrel can be used as emergency contraception, even if the individual is already on an oral contraceptive. However, it's essential to follow the healthcare provider's guidance.
Choice C Reason:
"If you don't start your period within 5 days of taking this medication, you will need a pregnancy test." This statement is not entirely accurate. While a delayed period may occur after taking levonorgestrel, it does not necessarily indicate pregnancy. If there are concerns about pregnancy, a pregnancy test should be taken a few weeks after using emergency contraception.
Choice D Reason:
"One dose of this medication will prevent you from becoming pregnant for 14 days after taking it." This statement is not accurate. Levonorgestrel is primarily effective in the prevention of pregnancy when taken shortly after unprotected intercourse. It does not provide ongoing protection, and additional contraceptive methods should be considered for future encounters.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The cervix being effaced is not represented by the -1 notation in a vaginal examination. Effacement is usually expressed as a percentage.
B. The -1 notation does not represent cervical dilation. Dilation is measured in centimeters.
C. The presenting part being 1 cm below the ischial spines is not correct. In the station system, if the presenting part is above the ischial spines, it is represented by a negative number. A -1 station indicates that the presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines.
D. The presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines is the correct interpretation.
In the station system, if the presenting part is above the ischial spines, it is represented by a negative number. A -1 station indicates that the presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Reassess the client in 2 hours is inappropriate. While reassessment is important, addressing the cause of uterine displacement, in this case, a full bladder, should be the initial priority.
Choice B Reason:
Administering simethicone is inappropriate. Simethicone is typically used to relieve gas and bloating. It is not the primary intervention for uterine displacement related to bladder fullness.
Choice C Reason:
Assisting the client to empty her bladder is appropriate. A full bladder can displace the uterus and hinder its contraction, leading to potential issues such as uterine atony or increased postpartum bleeding. Emptying the bladder helps the uterus contract more effectively.
Choice D Reason:
Instructing the client to lie on her right side is inappropriate. Lying on the right side is often recommended to improve blood flow and oxygenation to the fetus during pregnancy but may not directly address uterine displacement caused by a full bladder. The priority is to assist the client in emptying her bladder.
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