A woman with preeclampsia gave birth vaginally 1 hour ago. She is still receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion at 1 gm/hr. A major concern regarding the administration of magnesium sulfate at this time would be:

Diuresis

Hypotension

Increased risk for seizures

Excessive uterine bleeding.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Diuresis. Increased urine output is a positive sign in a postpartum woman with preeclampsia, indicating that fluid shifts are occurring and the kidneys are functioning well. Magnesium sulfate does not cause fluid retention, and diuresis is not a major concern at this time.

B. Hypotension. While magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, leading to a mild decrease in blood pressure, severe hypotension is not the primary concern. The main hemodynamic concern postpartum is ensuring adequate uterine tone and preventing hemorrhage.

C. Increased risk for seizures. Magnesium sulfate is given to prevent eclampsia-related seizures, and its continued administration postpartum helps reduce seizure risk. The risk of seizures decreases after delivery, but stopping the infusion too early could increase the risk, making this a secondary rather than primary concern.

D. Excessive uterine bleeding. Magnesium sulfate relaxes smooth muscle, including the uterus, which can lead to uterine atony and increased postpartum hemorrhage risk. This is a critical concern in the immediate postpartum period, as uterine atony can result in life-threatening blood loss requiring urgent intervention.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. 2+ Deep Tendon Reflexes. A 2+ deep tendon reflex is considered normal and does not indicate worsening preeclampsia. Severe preeclampsia is often associated with hyperreflexia, typically 3+ or 4+, which can signal worsening central nervous system involvement and an increased risk for seizures.

B. Platelets of 20,000. A platelet count of 20,000 is dangerously low and suggests the development of HELLP syndrome, a severe complication of preeclampsia that includes hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. This condition increases the risk of spontaneous bleeding and requires immediate medical intervention.

C. Urine output of 75 ml per hour. A urine output of 75 mL per hour is adequate and does not indicate worsening kidney function. In severe preeclampsia, oliguria (urine output less than 30 mL per hour) is a more concerning sign, as it suggests impaired renal perfusion and possible acute kidney injury.

D. 1+ Proteinuria. While proteinuria is a key feature of preeclampsia, a 1+ reading is mild and not necessarily indicative of worsening disease. Severe preeclampsia is typically associated with proteinuria of 3+ or higher, along with other symptoms such as hypertension, headache, and visual disturbances.

A. Uterine prolapse. B. Uterine rupture. C. Precipitous labor. D. Amniotic fluid embolus.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Uterine prolapse. Uterine prolapse occurs when the uterus descends into or outside the vagina, usually postpartum due to weakened pelvic support. It does not present with sudden, severe pain or fetal heart rate abnormalities during labor.

B. Uterine rupture. A tearing sensation, sudden severe pain, fetal heart rate abnormalities, pallor, and diaphoresis are hallmark signs of uterine rupture. This is a life-threatening emergency where the uterine wall tears, often due to prior cesarean scars, excessive oxytocin use, or grand multiparity. Immediate intervention, including emergency surgery, is required to prevent maternal and fetal death.

C. Precipitous labor. Precipitous labor is rapid labor and delivery within three hours and is not associated with severe, tearing pain. While it can cause fetal distress, it does not typically involve uterine rupture symptoms.

D. Amniotic fluid embolus. An amniotic fluid embolus presents with sudden respiratory distress, hypotension, and cardiovascular collapse due to amniotic fluid entering the maternal circulation. It does not typically cause localized severe abdominal pain or fetal distress due to uterine rupture.

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A woman with preeclampsia gave birth vaginally 1 hour ago. She is still receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion at 1 gm/hr. A major concern regarding the administration of magnesium sulfate at this time would be:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is assessing a patient who has severe preeclampsia. The assessment finding that should be reported to the physician is:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

During augmentation of labor with intravenous oxytocin (Pitocin), a multiparous client becomes pale and diaphoretic and complains of severe lower abdominal pain with a tearing sensation. An abnormal FHR tracing is noted on the monitor. The nurse should suspect:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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