A woman with preeclampsia gave birth vaginally 1 hour ago. She is still receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion at 1 gm/hr. A major concern regarding the administration of magnesium sulfate at this time would be:
Diuresis
Hypotension
Increased risk for seizures
Excessive uterine bleeding.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Diuresis. Increased urine output is a positive sign in a postpartum woman with preeclampsia, indicating that fluid shifts are occurring and the kidneys are functioning well. Magnesium sulfate does not cause fluid retention, and diuresis is not a major concern at this time.
B. Hypotension. While magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, leading to a mild decrease in blood pressure, severe hypotension is not the primary concern. The main hemodynamic concern postpartum is ensuring adequate uterine tone and preventing hemorrhage.
C. Increased risk for seizures. Magnesium sulfate is given to prevent eclampsia-related seizures, and its continued administration postpartum helps reduce seizure risk. The risk of seizures decreases after delivery, but stopping the infusion too early could increase the risk, making this a secondary rather than primary concern.
D. Excessive uterine bleeding. Magnesium sulfate relaxes smooth muscle, including the uterus, which can lead to uterine atony and increased postpartum hemorrhage risk. This is a critical concern in the immediate postpartum period, as uterine atony can result in life-threatening blood loss requiring urgent intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm. Cervical changes, including effacement and dilation, are the most definitive signs of preterm labor. Uterine contractions alone do not confirm preterm labor unless they result in cervical dilation, indicating that labor is progressing.
B. Irregular, mild uterine contractions are occurring every 15-30 minutes. Irregular contractions, known as Braxton Hicks contractions, can be common in pregnancy and do not necessarily indicate preterm labor. True preterm labor involves regular contractions that lead to cervical changes.
C. Estriol is not found in maternal saliva. The absence of estriol in maternal saliva does not confirm or rule out preterm labor. Salivary estriol testing is not a widely used or reliable diagnostic tool for determining the onset of preterm labor.
D. Fetal fibronectin is present in vaginal secretion. Fetal fibronectin (fFN) is a protein found in vaginal secretions between 22-34 weeks of pregnancy and can indicate a risk of preterm labor, but its presence alone does not confirm that labor is actively occurring. A positive fFN test means the patient may be at increased risk for preterm labor, but cervical changes remain the best indicator of actual labor.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Oligohydramnios. Oligohydramnios, or low amniotic fluid levels, is not a primary complication of pregestational diabetes. It is more commonly associated with conditions such as fetal growth restriction, post-term pregnancy, and rupture of membranes rather than maternal hyperglycemia.
B. Congenital fetal anomalies. Poor glycemic control during preconception and early pregnancy increases the risk of congenital anomalies, particularly affecting the heart, spine, and central nervous system. Hyperglycemia during organogenesis (first 8 weeks of gestation) can lead to defects such as neural tube defects and cardiac malformations.
C. Intrauterine fetal seizures. Fetal seizures in utero are extremely rare and are not a common complication of maternal diabetes. While neonatal hypoglycemia after birth can lead to seizures, maternal hyperglycemia does not directly cause seizures in the fetus.
D. Polyhydramnios. While polyhydramnios (excess amniotic fluid) can occur in pregnancies complicated by diabetes due to fetal polyuria, it is more associated with later pregnancy. The question specifically asks about preconception and early pregnancy risks, making congenital anomalies the best answer.
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