A woman with preeclampsia gave birth vaginally 1 hour ago. She is still receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion at 1 gm/hr. A major concern regarding the administration of magnesium sulfate at this time would be:
Diuresis
Hypotension
Increased risk for seizures
Excessive uterine bleeding.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Diuresis. Increased urine output is a positive sign in a postpartum woman with preeclampsia, indicating that fluid shifts are occurring and the kidneys are functioning well. Magnesium sulfate does not cause fluid retention, and diuresis is not a major concern at this time.
B. Hypotension. While magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, leading to a mild decrease in blood pressure, severe hypotension is not the primary concern. The main hemodynamic concern postpartum is ensuring adequate uterine tone and preventing hemorrhage.
C. Increased risk for seizures. Magnesium sulfate is given to prevent eclampsia-related seizures, and its continued administration postpartum helps reduce seizure risk. The risk of seizures decreases after delivery, but stopping the infusion too early could increase the risk, making this a secondary rather than primary concern.
D. Excessive uterine bleeding. Magnesium sulfate relaxes smooth muscle, including the uterus, which can lead to uterine atony and increased postpartum hemorrhage risk. This is a critical concern in the immediate postpartum period, as uterine atony can result in life-threatening blood loss requiring urgent intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
True.
When supporting a woman who has just experienced a fetal demise, it is appropriate and compassionate to:
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Offer supportive care.
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Allow and encourage space and time to grieve.
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Offer the services of a chaplain, especially if the patient expresses a desire for spiritual or emotional support.
Chaplains are typically trained to be non-denominational and sensitive to a wide range of beliefs, and they can provide comforting words and presence regardless of the patient’s faith or lack thereof. This approach aligns with holistic and patient-centered care.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Preterm labor. Methotrexate is not used for preterm labor. Medications such as tocolytics (e.g., nifedipine, magnesium sulfate, or terbutaline) are typically used to delay labor and improve neonatal outcomes, but methotrexate does not serve this purpose.
B. Abruptio placentae. Methotrexate is not indicated for abruptio placentae, which is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Management of abruptio placentae focuses on stabilizing the mother, monitoring fetal well-being, and delivering the baby if necessary.
C. Pre-eclampsia. Methotrexate does not treat pre-eclampsia. The management of pre-eclampsia includes antihypertensive medications, magnesium sulfate for seizure prevention, and delivery of the baby when indicated.
D. Unruptured ectopic pregnancy. Methotrexate is the first-line treatment for an unruptured ectopic pregnancy. It works by inhibiting rapidly dividing trophoblastic cells, stopping the growth of the ectopic pregnancy while preserving the fallopian tube. It is only used in stable patients with small, unruptured ectopic pregnancies and no signs of internal bleeding.
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