The nurse would include which of the following statements when describing the pathophysiology of gestational diabetes?

There is progressive resistance to the effects of insulin

Pregnancy fosters the development of carbohydrate cravings.

Hypoinsulinemia develops early in the first trimester

Glucose levels decrease to accommodate fetal growth.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. There is progressive resistance to the effects of insulin. During pregnancy, placental hormones (such as human placental lactogen, estrogen, and progesterone) cause increasing insulin resistance. This ensures that glucose remains available for fetal growth. However, in gestational diabetes, the pancreas cannot compensate with increased insulin production, leading to hyperglycemia.

B. Pregnancy fosters the development of carbohydrate cravings. While some pregnant individuals experience cravings, this is not a defining cause of gestational diabetes. The condition results from hormonal changes leading to insulin resistance, not dietary habits alone.

C. Hypoinsulinemia develops early in the first trimester. Gestational diabetes is not caused by a deficiency of insulin (hypoinsulinemia) but by insulin resistance. In fact, insulin production often increases, but it is insufficient to overcome the resistance caused by placental hormones.

D. Glucose levels decrease to accommodate fetal growth. In a normal pregnancy, glucose levels remain stable, and the fetus actively takes glucose from maternal circulation. However, in gestational diabetes, maternal glucose levels rise due to insulin resistance, increasing the risk of fetal overgrowth (macrosomia).

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Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]

Explanation

A. Right-sided epigastric pain. Epigastric pain, especially on the right side, is a concerning sign of preeclampsia and may indicate liver involvement due to elevated liver enzymes or HELLP syndrome. This symptom should be assessed further as it suggests worsening disease progression.

B. Uterine contractions. Uterine contractions are not a defining feature of preeclampsia. They are more commonly associated with preterm labor rather than hypertension-related complications. While preeclampsia can lead to preterm birth, contractions alone do not confirm or negate the condition.

C. Bright red painless vaginal bleeding. Bright red painless vaginal bleeding is more indicative of placenta previa or another obstetric complication rather than preeclampsia. Preeclampsia primarily presents with hypertension, proteinuria, and systemic symptoms rather than vaginal bleeding.

D. Severe headache. A severe headache is a classic symptom of preeclampsia, often due to elevated blood pressure and cerebral edema. Persistent headaches that do not resolve with usual interventions should be evaluated promptly as they may indicate worsening hypertension or an impending seizure.

E. Visual disturbances. Visual disturbances such as blurred vision, photophobia, or seeing spots are common in preeclampsia and can signal cerebral edema or increased intracranial pressure. This is a significant warning sign requiring immediate assessment.

F. Dull backache. A dull backache is more commonly associated with musculoskeletal strain, labor, or a urinary tract infection rather than preeclampsia. While discomfort can be present in pregnancy, it is not a defining symptom of preeclampsia.

A. Preterm labor B. Abruptio placentae C. Pre-eclampsia D. Unruptured ectopic pregnancy

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Preterm labor. Methotrexate is not used for preterm labor. Medications such as tocolytics (e.g., nifedipine, magnesium sulfate, or terbutaline) are typically used to delay labor and improve neonatal outcomes, but methotrexate does not serve this purpose.

B. Abruptio placentae. Methotrexate is not indicated for abruptio placentae, which is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Management of abruptio placentae focuses on stabilizing the mother, monitoring fetal well-being, and delivering the baby if necessary.

C. Pre-eclampsia. Methotrexate does not treat pre-eclampsia. The management of pre-eclampsia includes antihypertensive medications, magnesium sulfate for seizure prevention, and delivery of the baby when indicated.

D. Unruptured ectopic pregnancy. Methotrexate is the first-line treatment for an unruptured ectopic pregnancy. It works by inhibiting rapidly dividing trophoblastic cells, stopping the growth of the ectopic pregnancy while preserving the fallopian tube. It is only used in stable patients with small, unruptured ectopic pregnancies and no signs of internal bleeding.

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The nurse would include which of the following statements when describing the pathophysiology of gestational diabetes?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A primigravida who is 28 weeks pregnant visits the clinic fearing she is experiencing preeclampsia. Which of the following assessments would the nurse make to confirm or negate these thoughts? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]

Explanation

The nurse is preparing to administer methotrexate to the patient. This drug is most often used for which obstetric complication?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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