An adult client with pericarditis is exhibiting muffled heart sounds. The client is diagnosed with cardiac tamponade, and a pericardiocentesis is scheduled. Prior to the procedure, it is most important for the nurse to implement which intervention?
Evaluate complete blood cell counts.
Assess for paradoxical pulse.
Discontinue anticoagulants.
Monitor central venous pressure (CVP).
The Correct Answer is B
A. Evaluate complete blood cell counts: While baseline labs, including CBC, are useful, they are not the immediate priority before a pericardiocentesis. These values provide general health data but do not guide acute decision-making for cardiac tamponade.
B. Assess for paradoxical pulse: A paradoxical pulse an exaggerated drop in systolic blood pressure during inspiration is a hallmark sign of cardiac tamponade. Recognizing this finding helps confirm clinical suspicion and prioritize urgent intervention.
C. Discontinue anticoagulants: Stopping anticoagulants is important to prevent bleeding during the procedure, this must be done under provider guidance and may not be feasible if the situation is emergent. It is a safety consideration but not the most urgent nursing action.
D. Monitor central venous pressure (CVP): CVP monitoring can reflect rising intrapericardial pressure in tamponade but often requires invasive access and may not be immediately available. It provides supportive data, but clinical signs such as paradoxical pulse offer more immediate diagnostic relevance.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Instruct the client to monitor daily caloric intake: Nutritional monitoring does not directly address the client’s current signs of early fluid overload. Caloric intake is not the immediate concern given the recent weight gain and decreased ejection fraction.
B. Assess compliance with routine prescriptions: With a postoperative ejection fraction of 30%, the client likely has heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF). A weight gain of 5 pounds and pedal edema suggest fluid retention, which may indicate suboptimal adherence to prescribed medications such as diuretics.
C. Arrange transport for admission to the hospital: Although the client shows signs of mild fluid retention, lung sounds are clear and only +1 edema is noted. Hospital admission is not yet indicated unless symptoms worsen or do not respond to outpatient interventions.
D. Insert saline lock for IV diuretic therapy: IV diuretics are used in acute decompensated heart failure, especially when there is pulmonary congestion or volume overload. Since the client has mild edema and clear lungs, oral medication review is the appropriate initial step.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Transvenous pacemaker placement: A pacemaker is indicated for bradyarrhythmias or heart blocks, not for tachyarrhythmias like atrial fibrillation. This patient’s rapid atrial fibrillation does not warrant pacing and requires rate control and anticoagulation instead.
B. Heparin infusion: In new-onset atrial fibrillation of unknown duration, anticoagulation is essential to prevent thromboembolism, especially before attempting cardioversion. Heparin is typically initiated to reduce stroke risk while further evaluation is performed.
C. Lidocaine IVPB: Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic used mainly for ventricular arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. It is not effective for atrial fibrillation and is not part of AF management protocols.
D. Sedation for cardioversion: Cardioversion may be appropriate, but not until thrombus risk is evaluated and anticoagulation is established. In AF of unknown duration, immediate cardioversion is avoided unless the patient is unstable, to prevent embolic complications.
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