An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is staging a pressure injury. The APRN notes partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis. How should the APRN document the stage of this pressure injury?
Stage 1
Stage 2
Stage 3
Stage 4
The Correct Answer is B
Pressure injuries are classified based on the depth and extent of tissue damage resulting from prolonged pressure, usually over bony prominences. Accurate staging is essential for guiding wound management, documenting severity, and predicting healing outcomes. Stage 2 pressure injuries involve partial-thickness skin loss extending through the epidermis and into the dermis, often presenting as an open shallow ulcer or blister. Correct identification ensures appropriate treatment and prevention of further tissue damage.
Rationale:
A. Stage 1 pressure injury involves intact skin with non-blanchable erythema over a localized area. There is no open wound or loss of skin layers, only changes in skin color and temperature. Since this case involves partial-thickness skin loss, it is more advanced than Stage 1.
B. Stage 2 pressure injury is correctly documented because it involves partial-thickness loss of skin affecting the epidermis and dermis. It may present as an open shallow ulcer or an intact or ruptured serum-filled blister. The wound is superficial and does not extend into deeper tissues such as subcutaneous fat or muscle.
C. Stage 3 pressure injuries involve full-thickness skin loss extending into the subcutaneous tissue, often with visible fat but not exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. The damage is deeper than Stage 2 and may include tunneling or undermining. Since this case is limited to epidermis and dermis, Stage 3 is too advanced.
D. Stage 4 pressure injuries involve full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. These are severe wounds with extensive destruction and high risk of complications such as osteomyelitis. The findings described do not indicate this level of tissue involvement, making Stage 4 incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Trichomonal vaginitis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Trichomonas vaginalis, a protozoan parasite affecting the lower genital tract. It commonly presents with profuse, foul-smelling, yellow-green vaginal discharge accompanied by vulvar irritation, itching, dysuria, and vaginal erythema. The vaginal mucosa may appear diffusely inflamed, and the cervix can sometimes show a “strawberry” appearance due to punctate hemorrhages. Recognizing the characteristic discharge and associated irritation helps distinguish it from other causes of vaginitis.
Rationale:
A. Atrophic vaginitis is usually seen in postmenopausal women due to decreased estrogen levels causing thinning and dryness of the vaginal mucosa. Symptoms commonly include vaginal dryness, dyspareunia, and irritation rather than profuse yellow-green discharge. It would be very unlikely in an 18-year-old patient with this presentation.
B. Trichomonal vaginitis is characterized by frothy, profuse, foul-smelling yellow-green discharge with associated itching, burning, dysuria, and diffuse vaginal erythema. The infection causes inflammation of the vaginal mucosa and vulva, leading to irritation and discomfort. This presentation matches the symptoms described, making it the most likely diagnosis.
C. Candidal vaginitis typically presents with thick, white, “cottage cheese-like” discharge rather than yellow-green discharge. Intense itching and vulvar irritation are common, but the odor is usually minimal or absent. The profuse malodorous discharge is more consistent with trichomoniasis than candidiasis.
D. Bacterial vaginosis usually causes a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a strong fishy odor, especially after intercourse. It does not cause significant vulvar itching, dysuria, or marked vaginal erythema because inflammation is minimal. The presence of yellow-green discharge and diffuse erythema makes trichomonal vaginitis more likely.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Acute low back pain is commonly caused by musculoskeletal strain or ligamentous injury following physical exertion, especially lifting. Mechanical low back pain arises from overuse or strain of the lumbar muscles, ligaments, or facet joints rather than nerve root compression or spinal canal pathology. It typically presents with localized pain that is reproducible with movement or palpation and lacks neurological deficits. Distinguishing mechanical causes from neurologic or emergency conditions is essential for appropriate management.
Rationale:
A. Lumbar spinal stenosis typically presents with chronic, progressive lower back pain accompanied by neurogenic claudication, such as leg pain, numbness, or weakness that worsens with walking and improves with flexion or rest. It is more common in older adults and involves nerve root compression. The acute onset after lifting and absence of neurological findings make this diagnosis unlikely.
B. Sciatica results from compression or irritation of the lumbosacral nerve roots, leading to radiating pain that typically extends below the knee along the distribution of the sciatic nerve. It is often associated with positive straight leg raise tests and possible sensory or motor deficits. The absence of radicular symptoms and negative provocative tests argue against sciatica.
C. Mechanical low back pain is the most consistent diagnosis because it is caused by strain or injury to the lumbar musculature or supporting structures following physical activity such as lifting. Pain is typically localized to the lumbosacral region and may radiate to the buttocks but does not follow a dermatomal pattern or extend below the knee. Normal neurological examination and pain reproduced with movement and palpation strongly support a musculoskeletal origin.
D. Cauda equina syndrome is a medical emergency characterized by severe low back pain with bilateral leg weakness, saddle anesthesia, bladder or bowel dysfunction, and decreased reflexes. It results from compression of the cauda equina nerve roots and requires urgent surgical intervention. The absence of neurological deficits and bladder or bowel symptoms makes this diagnosis unlikely in this case.
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