An 83 year-old patient lives with his daughter. At his examination, the advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) notes numerous bruises and scars. The patient is making less eye contact than usual. The daughter is initiating all inquiries and responding to all questions. The patient usually engages in the conversation during regular office visits. These assessment findings are most concerning for which differential diagnosis?
Older adult (elder) abuse
Anemia
Depression
Mild cognitive impairment
The Correct Answer is A
Assessment of unexplained physical and behavioral changes in older adults requires careful consideration of both medical and psychosocial causes. Elder abuse should be suspected when there are signs of injury, behavioral withdrawal, and caregiver dominance during interactions. Bruising, reduced eye contact, and altered patient participation in conversation can indicate possible neglect, physical abuse, or coercion. Identifying abuse early is essential to ensure patient safety and initiate protective interventions.
Rationale:
A. Elder abuse is the most concerning diagnosis because it involves physical, emotional, or psychological harm inflicted on an older adult, often by a caregiver. Unexplained bruises and scars raise concern for physical abuse, while reduced eye contact and decreased engagement may indicate fear, intimidation, or emotional withdrawal. The daughter controlling the interaction and the patient’s deviation from baseline behavior strongly support possible abuse or neglect.
B. Anemia may cause symptoms such as fatigue, pallor, and weakness but does not explain bruising patterns combined with behavioral changes in caregiver interaction. While some bleeding disorders can contribute to bruising, anemia alone does not account for the observed psychosocial dynamics or decreased patient engagement. Therefore, it does not fully explain the clinical picture.
C. Depression in older adults can present with withdrawal, reduced eye contact, and decreased communication. However, depression does not typically cause multiple unexplained bruises and scars. The combination of physical injury and caregiver dominance makes abuse a more concerning and comprehensive explanation than depression alone.
D. Mild cognitive impairment involves subtle memory and cognitive changes but does not usually result in behavioral withdrawal due to caregiver control or unexplained physical injuries. Patients with cognitive decline may still engage in conversation, and bruising would not be explained by this condition. The presence of physical trauma and altered interaction patterns suggests a different underlying cause.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C"]
Explanation
Assessment of hip stability in newborns is an essential component of early musculoskeletal screening to detect developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). Early identification is critical because untreated hip instability can lead to gait abnormalities, joint deformity, and long-term disability. Specific orthopedic maneuvers are used during infancy to assess whether the femoral head is dislocatable or reducible within the acetabulum. These tests are routinely performed until the infant begins walking, after which other signs become more apparent.
Rationale:
A. The Barlow test is used to assess whether the infant’s hip is dislocatable. It involves gently adducting the hip and applying posterior pressure to determine if the femoral head can be pushed out of the acetabulum. A positive Barlow test indicates hip instability and suggests developmental dysplasia of the hip requiring further evaluation and monitoring.
B. The Trendelenburg test assesses hip abductor muscle strength in older children and adults, not newborns. It evaluates pelvic stability during single-leg stance and is used in conditions such as hip dysplasia, muscular weakness, or nerve injury. It is not appropriate for detecting neonatal hip instability.
C. The Ortolani test is used to assess whether a dislocated hip can be reduced back into the acetabulum. It involves abducting the infant’s hips while applying gentle anterior pressure to feel or hear a “clunk” as the femoral head relocates. A positive Ortolani sign indicates a reducible dislocation consistent with developmental dysplasia of the hip.
D. The Leopold maneuver is an obstetric assessment technique used during pregnancy to determine fetal position, presentation, and lie within the uterus. It is not related to neonatal orthopedic examination or detection of hip instability. Therefore, it is not used in assessing developmental dysplasia of the hip.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Joint disorders in older adults can present with overlapping symptoms, but careful assessment of pattern, duration of stiffness, and joints involved helps differentiate inflammatory from degenerative conditions. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic systemic autoimmune disease that primarily affects synovial joints, leading to inflammation, pain, and progressive joint damage. It typically presents with symmetrical joint involvement, prolonged morning stiffness, and signs of active inflammation such as warmth and tenderness. Identifying these features is essential for early diagnosis and disease-modifying treatment.
Rationale:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis is the most likely cause because it presents with symmetrical joint involvement, prolonged morning stiffness lasting more than one hour, and inflammation of small joints such as the MCP and wrists. The presence of tender, warm joints indicates active synovitis due to autoimmune-mediated destruction of the synovial membrane. Although DIP joints are less commonly affected, the overall pattern of inflammatory, bilateral joint pain strongly supports RA.
B. Osteoarthritis typically involves degenerative changes in weight-bearing joints and commonly affects the DIP joints, but it is not associated with prolonged morning stiffness or significant warmth. Stiffness in OA is usually brief, lasting less than 30 minutes, and improves with activity. The presence of inflammatory signs such as warmth and prolonged stiffness makes OA less likely in this case.
C. Gouty arthritis usually presents as acute, episodic attacks of severe pain, often affecting a single joint such as the first metatarsophalangeal joint. It is characterized by redness, intense pain, and swelling rather than chronic bilateral involvement of wrists and MCP joints. The chronic, symmetrical pattern described in this patient is not typical of gout.
D. Trigger finger is a localized tendon disorder caused by stenosing tenosynovitis of the flexor tendon sheath, leading to locking or catching of a finger during movement. It does not cause systemic joint inflammation or symmetrical polyarticular pain. The presentation in this case involves multiple joints with inflammatory signs, making trigger finger an unlikely explanation.
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