An elderly male patient, who has been experiencing abdominal pain, is admitted to the hospital from a long-term care facility.
He hasn’t had a bowel movement in 7 days, his abdomen is distended, and he recently vomited 150 mL of dark brown emesis.
In what order should the nurse perform the following interventions? Arrange from highest to lowest priority.
Complete a focused assessment.
Offer PRN pain medication.
Send the emesis sample to the lab.
Elevate the head of the bed.
The Correct Answer is A,D,B,C
- Complete a focused assessment: The first step in managing a patient with abdominal pain and other symptoms is to perform a comprehensive assessment. This will help identify the cause of the symptoms and guide subsequent interventions.
- Offer PRN pain medication: Once the immediate risks have been addressed, managing the patient’s pain is a priority. However, the choice of pain medication will depend on the results of the assessment.
- Send the emesis sample to the lab: Sending the emesis sample to the lab can provide valuable information about the cause of the patient’s symptoms. However, this is not as urgent as the other interventions.
- Elevate the head of the bed: Elevating the head of the bed can help reduce the risk of aspiration, especially in a patient who has vomited. This should be done as soon as possible.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A blood glucose level of 90 mg/dL (5 mmol/L) is within the normal range and would not need to be reported to the surgeon.
Choice B rationale
A serum creatinine level of 5 mg/dL (442 µmol/L) is significantly elevated, indicating impaired kidney function. This is a critical lab value that should be reported to the surgeon immediately, as it could impact the patient’s ability to safely undergo surgery and recover postoperatively.
Choice C rationale
A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL (130 g/L) is within the normal range and would not need to be reported to the surgeon.
Choice D rationale
A potassium level of 4 mEq/L (4 mmol/L) is within the normal range and would not need to be reported to the surgeon.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Nadolol is a beta-blocker that can decrease heart rate and contractility, which can potentially exacerbate heart failure and lead to cardiogenic shock.
Choice B rationale
Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that is often used in the treatment of heart failure. It works by relaxing blood vessels and reducing the workload of the heart.
Choice C rationale
Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that is used to treat heart failure and certain heart arrhythmias. It works by increasing the force of the heart’s contractions, which can improve heart function.
Choice D rationale
Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that is often used in the treatment of heart failure. It works by helping the body get rid of excess fluid, which can reduce the workload of the heart.
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