An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) tells the nurse manager that multiple clients report they have not received their requested pain medication, even though the nurse states the medication has been administered. Which action should the nurse manager take first?
Provide the staff with resources for learning about substance use disorder.
Approach the involved nurse to discuss the behavior.
Refer the nurse to the board of nursing diversion program.
Gather data about the nurse's work performance and attendance history.
The Correct Answer is D
Suspected drug diversion is a critical regulatory and safety concern where a healthcare professional misappropriates controlled substances intended for patient use. The nurse manager must balance due process with the immediate need to protect patients from untreated pain and potential harm. Initial management focuses on the objective collection of corroborative evidence to substantiate claims of impairment or theft before initiating formal confrontation or disciplinary reporting procedures.
Rationale:
A. Educating the staff about addiction is a proactive preventative measure but does not address the acute suspicion of active drug theft. The manager must first determine if a specific violation has occurred before implementing broad educational interventions for the unit. Addressing the immediate safety risk to patients takes precedence over general staff development during an active investigation.
B. Approaching the nurse without sufficient evidence can lead to the concealment of further proof or defensive behavior that compromises the investigation. A formal meeting should only occur after the manager has reviewed objective data, such as medication administration records and witness statements. Premature confrontation may alert an impaired individual, allowing them to bypass safety controls.
C. Referring a nurse to a diversion program is a rehabilitative step that occurs only after the suspicion of substance abuse has been confirmed through an internal audit. The manager lacks the authority or evidence to mandate such a program based solely on hearsay from an unlicensed staff member. Proper investigative protocols must be satisfied before involving external regulatory bodies or boards.
D. The manager’s first priority is to conduct a comprehensive audit of the nurse’s narcotic records, patient pain assessments, and patterns of absenteeism. This data collection phase provides the factual foundation necessary to identify discrepancies between documented care and actual patient experiences. Gathering evidence ensures that subsequent actions are legally sound and clinically justified to protect patient welfare.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Infective endocarditis involves a microbial infection of the endocardial surface, typically targeting the cardiac valves and resulting in the formation of friable vegetations. These lesions can lead to valvular incompetence, myocardial abscesses, or systemic septic embolization. Rapid initiation of high-dose intravenous therapy is mandatory to achieve bactericidal concentrations and prevent irreversible valvular destruction or sudden hemodynamic collapse.
Rationale:
A. Statin medications, or HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, are utilized for the long-term management of hyperlipidemia and the stabilization of atherosclerotic plaques. While they are critical for preventing future cardiovascular events, they do not provide acute stabilization or immediate life-saving effects. Administering this medication is a routine task that can be deferred until after higher-priority treatments are completed.
B. Antiplatelet therapy is a standard secondary prevention strategy used to inhibit thrombocyte aggregation and reduce the risk of recurrent ischemic events following a myocardial infarction. Although essential for maintaining vascular patency, it is typically a daily maintenance medication in the post-acute phase. It does not take precedence over the first dose of a time-critical antibiotic for an active infection.
C. The first dose of an antibiotic for acute endocarditis is a medical priority to halt the progression of valvular damage and systemic sepsis. Early administration is linked to improved clinical outcomes and a reduction in the risk of embolic complications. This medication must be given immediately after admission to establish a therapeutic window and control the infectious process in the bloodstream.
D. Coronary vasodilator patches, such as nitroglycerin, are used for the prophylactic management of chronic stable angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand. While important for managing coronary artery disease, the patch is a slow-release delivery system intended for long-term symptom control rather than acute intervention. It is a lower priority compared to the urgent antimicrobial needs of a newly admitted client.
Correct Answer is ["100"]
Explanation
Step 1: Identify the formula
gtt/min = (Total volume × Drop factor) ÷ Time (in minutes)
Step 2: Convert time to minutes
2 hours × 60 = 120 minutes
Step 3: Insert values
= (200 × 60) ÷ 120
Step 4: Calculate
= 12000 ÷ 120
= 100 gtt/min
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