Choice A reason: Loxapine is a typical (first-generation) antipsychotic of the dibenzoxazepine class. While it can cause some elevation in prolactin levels, it is not as frequently associated with severe galactorrhea (breast leaking) as certain second-generation antipsychotics like Risperidone, which have a much more profound and sustained effect on the tuberoinfundibular pathway.
Choice B reason: Risperidone is well-known for causing significant hyperprolactinemia. It strongly antagonizes dopamine D2 receptors in the tuberoinfundibular tract. Since dopamine normally inhibits prolactin release, blocking it causes prolactin levels to rise sharply, leading to side effects such as galactorrhea, gynecomastia, and menstrual irregularities in patients, regardless of gender.
Choice C reason: Zyprexa (Olanzapine) is a second-generation antipsychotic that generally has a lower risk of causing sustained hyperprolactinemia compared to Risperidone. While it may cause transient elevations in prolactin, it is more commonly associated with metabolic side effects such as significant weight gain, dyslipidemia, and increased risk of type 2 diabetes.
Choice D reason: Haldol (Haloperidol) is a potent first-generation antipsychotic that certainly can cause increased prolactin. However, in modern clinical practice, when a patient specifically presents with breast leaking on a newer regimen, Risperidone is the most "notorious" culprit among the atypical agents for this specific dose-related endocrine side effect.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Loxapine is a typical (first-generation) antipsychotic of the dibenzoxazepine class. While it can cause some elevation in prolactin levels, it is not as frequently associated with severe galactorrhea (breast leaking) as certain second-generation antipsychotics like Risperidone, which have a much more profound and sustained effect on the tuberoinfundibular pathway.
Choice B reason: Risperidone is well-known for causing significant hyperprolactinemia. It strongly antagonizes dopamine D2 receptors in the tuberoinfundibular tract. Since dopamine normally inhibits prolactin release, blocking it causes prolactin levels to rise sharply, leading to side effects such as galactorrhea, gynecomastia, and menstrual irregularities in patients, regardless of gender.
Choice C reason: Zyprexa (Olanzapine) is a second-generation antipsychotic that generally has a lower risk of causing sustained hyperprolactinemia compared to Risperidone. While it may cause transient elevations in prolactin, it is more commonly associated with metabolic side effects such as significant weight gain, dyslipidemia, and increased risk of type 2 diabetes.
Choice D reason: Haldol (Haloperidol) is a potent first-generation antipsychotic that certainly can cause increased prolactin. However, in modern clinical practice, when a patient specifically presents with breast leaking on a newer regimen, Risperidone is the most "notorious" culprit among the atypical agents for this specific dose-related endocrine side effect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a highly effective, evidence-based treatment for severe depression, particularly when there is an immediate risk of suicide or when pharmacological interventions have failed. It is a standard and appropriate order for acute stabilization in severe cases.
Choice B reason: Elavil (Amitriptyline) is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) that has significant sedative properties. It is often prescribed for depressed patients who also experience significant agitation or insomnia. While newer drugs exist, it is a clinically valid pharmacological choice for this presentation.
Choice C reason: Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have a narrow therapeutic index and significant side effects, including anticholinergic effects and cardiotoxicity. Starting with a low dose and titrating upward is the standard clinical practice to improve patient tolerance and monitor for adverse reactions.
Choice D reason: This order must be questioned because combining Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) and Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs) is strictly contraindicated. This combination can lead to Serotonin Syndrome, a potentially fatal condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, autonomic instability, and mental status changes.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Loxapine is a typical (first-generation) antipsychotic. While it is effective at reducing positive symptoms like hallucinations and delusions by blocking dopamine D2 receptors, first-generation antipsychotics are generally less effective at treating the negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as social withdrawal, blunted affect, and poverty of speech.
Choice B reason: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used primarily for the short-term management of acute anxiety, agitation, or insomnia. It does not possess antipsychotic properties and is not used as a primary treatment for either the positive or negative symptoms of schizophrenia, though it may be used as an adjunct for sedation.
Choice C reason: Zyprexa (olanzapine) is an atypical (second-generation) antipsychotic. These medications are designed to antagonize both dopamine and serotonin receptors. Because of this dual action, they are more effective than typical antipsychotics at alleviating negative symptoms while simultaneously controlling the positive symptoms associated with psychotic disorders.
Choice D reason: Haldol (haloperidol) is a potent first-generation antipsychotic. Like loxapine, it is highly effective for acute psychosis and positive symptoms due to its strong D2 receptor antagonism. However, it often provides little benefit for negative symptoms and carries a high risk of extrapyramidal side effects, making it a less likely choice for negative symptom management.
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