Classify the following congenital cardiac defects as cyanotic defects or cyanotic defects.
Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
Transposition of the Great Arteries
Atrial Septal Defect
Coarctation of the Aorta
Patent Ductus Arteriosus
Tetralogy of Fallot
The Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"B"},"E":{"answers":"B"},"F":{"answers":"A"}}
Rationale:
• Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome is cyanotic because severe underdevelopment of the left heart structures leads to mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, causing systemic hypoxemia from birth.
• Transposition of the Great Arteries is cyanotic as the aorta and pulmonary artery are switched, creating two separate circulations where oxygenated blood does not reach the systemic circulation without a shunt.
• Atrial Septal Defect is acyanotic because it initially causes a left-to-right shunt, increasing pulmonary blood flow without significant desaturation until later complications develop.
• Coarctation of the Aorta is acyanotic since it involves narrowing of the aorta, leading to obstruction of blood flow rather than abnormal mixing, so oxygen saturation typically remains normal.
• Patent Ductus Arteriosus is acyanotic in early stages because blood flows from the higher-pressure aorta into the pulmonary artery, increasing pulmonary circulation without systemic desaturation.
• Tetralogy of Fallot is cyanotic due to the combination of four defects, including right ventricular outflow obstruction, which forces deoxygenated blood into the systemic circulation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["437"]
Explanation
Calculation:
- Identify all fluid sources and convert volumes to milliliters (mL).
Water intake: 6.5 ounces x 30 mL/ounce = 195 mL.
Pedialyte ice pop intake: 2 ounces x 30 mL/ounce = 60 mL.
Jello intake: 1/4 cup x 240 mL/cup = 60 mL.
Maintenance IV fluids: 18 mL/hour x 4 hours = 72 mL.
Ceftriaxone IV piggyback: The entire volume of the bag is counted, which is 50 mL.
- Add all the volumes together to find the total intake.
Total intake = 195 mL + 60 mL + 60 mL + 72 mL + 50 mL
= 437 mL.
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices:
• Osteomyelitis: This is the most likely condition due to the patient’s fever, localized pain, warmth, erythema, and elevated white blood cell count. Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone, often presenting with these classic signs, especially in children and adolescents.
• Obtain blood specimen for culture and sensitivity: It is essential to collect blood cultures before starting antibiotics to identify the causative organism. This allows for targeted antimicrobial therapy and improves treatment effectiveness.
• Administer Antibiotics: Prompt empiric antibiotic therapy is critical in suspected osteomyelitis to halt infection progression and prevent complications. Antibiotics should be started after blood cultures are drawn.
• Bone Necrosis: Osteomyelitis can lead to bone tissue death if untreated. Monitoring for signs of necrosis, such as worsening pain or loss of function, is vital to intervene timely and prevent permanent damage.
• Sepsis: Because osteomyelitis can progress to systemic infection, it is critical to monitor for sepsis signs, including high fever, tachycardia, hypotension, and altered mental status. Early detection improves patient outcomes.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
• Sickle Cell Disease: The absence of a prior medical history and typical sickle cell symptoms (such as vaso-occlusive crises or anemia) makes this diagnosis unlikely. The localized signs of infection like warmth, erythema, and fever suggest an infectious process rather than sickling-related pain.
• Compartment Syndrome: Usually follows trauma or injury and is characterized by intense pain, swelling, and decreased pulses. This patient has no trauma history and normal pulses, so compartment syndrome is unlikely here.
• Bone Fracture: Bone fractures typically result from acute trauma with immediate pain and swelling. The patient denies any recent injury, and symptoms have developed over several days, which is not characteristic of a fracture.
• Administer Benadryl: This antihistamine is used to treat allergic reactions and is not indicated in bone infections or fever. It would not address the underlying infection causing the patient’s symptoms.
• Administer Hydroxyurea: Hydroxyurea is used primarily in sickle cell disease to reduce crises and improve red blood cell function. It has no role in managing infections like osteomyelitis and would not benefit this patient.
• Prepare to remove cast: There is no cast present on this patient, so cast removal is not relevant. This action is unnecessary and does not address the current clinical picture.
• Pulmonary Embolism: Pulmonary embolism presents with sudden respiratory distress and chest pain, which are not part of this patient’s symptoms. Monitoring for this is not the priority in localized bone infection.
• Cast tightness: Since the patient does not have a cast, monitoring for tightness or complications related to a cast is not applicable in this scenario.
• Acute Chest Syndrome: This is a complication specific to sickle cell disease and does not apply to this patient, who lacks a history or symptoms consistent with that diagnosis.
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