Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) was developed by Aaron Beck, who believed that external events do not cause anxiety. Which of the following statements is correct?
CBT is contraindicated in the treatment of phobia.
CBT is contraindicated in the treatment of anxiety.
The goal of CBT is to change irrational beliefs and cognitive distortions.
The goal of CBT is to change transference issues through assimilation.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: CBT is one of the most effective treatments for phobias. It uses exposure techniques and cognitive restructuring to reduce fear responses, making this statement incorrect.
Choice B reason: CBT is a first-line treatment for anxiety disorders. It helps clients identify and challenge anxious thoughts and behaviors, making this statement false.
Choice C reason: CBT aims to identify and modify irrational beliefs and cognitive distortions that contribute to emotional distress and maladaptive behavior. This is the core principle of CBT and aligns with Beck’s theory.
Choice D reason: Transference is a psychoanalytic concept. CBT does not focus on transference or assimilation of unconscious material but rather on conscious thought patterns and behaviors.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Sublimation is a mature defense mechanism where socially unacceptable impulses are transformed into socially acceptable actions. Jason’s shift from drug use to extreme sports channels his need for stimulation into a constructive outlet, making this a textbook example of sublimation.
Choice B reason: Suppression involves consciously choosing to delay or avoid dealing with distressing thoughts or feelings. Jason is not avoiding his impulses; he is redirecting them, which is more consistent with sublimation.
Choice C reason: Projection involves attributing one’s own unacceptable thoughts or feelings to someone else. Jason is not externalizing blame or emotions onto others, so this does not apply.
Choice D reason: Transference refers to redirecting feelings about significant others onto the therapist. Jason’s statement is about his own coping strategy, not about the therapeutic relationship.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Dopamine plays a central role in the pathophysiology of extrapyramidal symptoms. EPS occurs due to dopamine receptor blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway, particularly with antipsychotic medications. Reducing dopamine activity in this pathway leads to motor disturbances similar to Parkinsonism. Therefore, managing EPS often involves balancing dopamine levels or using medications that counteract dopamine blockade.
Choice B reason: Serotonin is involved in mood regulation and other central nervous system functions, but it is not directly implicated in the development of EPS. While some antipsychotics affect serotonin receptors, EPS symptoms are primarily linked to dopamine dysregulation.
Choice C reason: Norepinephrine is associated with arousal, attention, and stress responses. It does not play a significant role in the extrapyramidal system, and altering its levels would not directly alleviate EPS.
Choice D reason: Glutamate is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter and is involved in learning and memory. Although it interacts with dopamine systems, it is not the primary neurotransmitter responsible for EPS, and decreasing glutamate would not be a targeted approach for treating these symptoms.
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