Esophageal varices place an individual at risk for:
hypoglycemia.
gastroesophageal reflux.
hemorrhage.
cirrhosis.
The Correct Answer is C
A. hypoglycemia.: This metabolic state of low serum glucose is typically secondary to hepatic failure or insulin dysregulation. While often seen in patients with chronic liver disease, it is not a direct mechanical consequence of variceal presence. It involves biochemical rather than vascular pathology.
B. gastroesophageal reflux.: This condition results from the retrograde movement of gastric acid into the esophagus due to sphincter incompetence. Varices are dilated submucosal veins that do not inherently cause the relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter. It is a separate physiological process.
C. hemorrhage.: Elevated portal venous pressure causes these thin-walled collateral vessels to become distended and fragile. Spontaneous rupture or mechanical irritation leads to massive, life-threatening upper gastrointestinal bleeding. This is the primary and most lethal risk associated with esophageal varices.
D. cirrhosis.: This represents the end-stage fibrotic scarring of hepatic parenchyma which actually serves as the underlying cause of portal hypertension. Varices are a symptom of established cirrhosis rather than a risk factor for developing it. It is the preceding pathological state.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. difficulty with learning and reading.: These deficits are more specifically categorized as learning disabilities or alexia. While language-based, they do not describe the specific motoric failure of speech production. Expressive aphasia is a distinct neurological impairment of output.
B. an inability to speak or difficulty forming words.: This condition, often termed Broca's aphasia, involves a breakdown in the motor programming of speech. Patients exhibit non-fluent, effortful speech while generally retaining their ability to understand others. It is caused by frontal lobe damage.
C. repetitive hand and eye movements when speaking.: These motor behaviors are more characteristic of tics or stereotypies seen in certain neurodevelopmental disorders. They are not a component of the linguistic deficit defined as aphasia. Aphasia is strictly a language processing disorder.
D. an inability to understand what others are saying.: This describes receptive aphasia, which is localized to the temporal lobe. In this state, the primary deficit is in the decoding and comprehension of linguistic signals. It is functionally distinct from expressive output failure.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Meningitis: This condition involves an inflammatory response within the subarachnoid space involving the pia mater and arachnoid layers. The resulting intracranial pressure and meningeal irritation cause the classic triad of fever, neck stiffness, and headache. It is an acute neurological emergency.
B. Parkinson's disease: This is a chronic neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. It primarily affects motor control and does not cause acute inflammation of the meningeal membranes. Its onset is gradual rather than an acute inflammatory febrile state.
C. Multiple sclerosis: This autoimmune pathology involves the demyelination of central nervous system axons, leading to varied focal neurological deficits. While it involves the spinal cord and brain, it is characterized by white matter plaques rather than diffuse meningeal inflammation. It does not typically cause nuchal rigidity.
D. Stroke: This is an acute cerebrovascular accident caused by either ischemia or hemorrhage within the brain parenchyma. While it causes sudden neurological impairment, it is a vascular event rather than an inflammatory disease of the protective membranes. It lacks the systemic signs of meningeal irritation.
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