For a client with major depressive disorder reporting persistent insomnia, what should the nurse assess next?
The clients adherence to social activities.
The client’s dietary habits.
The client’s family history of depression.
Any nighttime rituals or routines.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: While social withdrawal is a symptom of major depressive disorder, assessing adherence to social activities does not directly address the immediate physiological and behavioral causes of insomnia. The priority for sleep disturbances is to identify factors that directly interfere with the initiation or maintenance of the sleep cycle.
Choice B reason: Dietary habits, such as caffeine intake, can certainly influence sleep quality. However, a comprehensive assessment of sleep hygiene specifically requires looking at the broader context of the client's behaviors during the pre-sleep period. Rituals and routines provide a more direct window into the client's sleep-wake regulation.
Choice C reason: Family history is important for establishing a genetic predisposition to depression, but it offers little utility in managing acute, persistent insomnia. The clinical focus must remain on modifiable behavioral factors and the current symptom profile to develop an effective nursing care plan for sleep restoration.
Choice D reason: Assessing nighttime rituals and routines is a critical component of evaluating sleep hygiene. The nurse must identify behaviors that may be disrupting the circadian rhythm, such as irregular sleep schedules, blue light exposure from screens, or stimulating activities late in the evening, to provide targeted educational interventions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Encouraging the cessation of medication is contraindicated for bipolar disorder, which typically requires lifelong mood-stabilizing pharmacotherapy. Abruptly stopping medications like lithium or valproate during the maintenance phase significantly increases the risk of an acute manic or depressive relapse and potential rebound symptoms.
Choice B reason: While managing stress is important, social isolation can be a trigger for depressive episodes and reduces the client's support system. The goal of the maintenance phase is to help the client return to a high level of social and occupational functioning, rather than withdrawing from life to avoid potential stressors.
Choice C reason: The maintenance phase focuses on long-term stability and relapse prevention. Educating the client on identifying early "prodromal" symptoms, such as decreased need for sleep or increased irritability, allows for early intervention. Stressing medication adherence is vital, as non-compliance is the leading cause of recurrent cycles in bipolar patients.
Choice D reason: Daily therapy sessions are typically reserved for the acute phase of illness or partial hospitalization programs. During the maintenance phase, therapy is usually less frequent, focusing on lifestyle management and coping strategies. Over-utilization of resources in a stable phase may foster dependency rather than promoting independent self-management.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: To calculate the correct volume, the nurse uses the standard formula: Desired dose (5 mg) divided by the dose on hand (10 mg) multiplied by the volume (1 mL). Therefore, 5 divided by 10 equals 0.5. Administering 0.5 mL provides exactly the 5 mg prescribed.
Choice B reason: Administering 2 mL would result in the patient receiving 20 mg of haloperidol. This is four times the prescribed dose and could lead to severe extrapyramidal side effects, acute dystonia, or neuroleptic malignant syndrome, representing a significant and dangerous medication administration error by the nurse.
Choice C reason: A volume of 0.25 mL would only deliver 2.5 mg of the medication. This sub-therapeutic dose would likely be ineffective in managing the patient's acute psychiatric symptoms or agitation, failing to meet the clinical objectives established by the prescribing healthcare provider's original medication order.
Choice D reason: Administering 1 mL would deliver 10 mg of haloperidol, which is double the intended 5 mg dose. Overdosing a patient on high-potency antipsychotics increases the risk of cardiac complications, such as QTc prolongation, and requires immediate reporting and monitoring for adverse neurological reactions.
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