Immediately following a seizure the client is at risk for
hyperventilation
tinnitus.
biting their tongue.
pulmonary aspiration.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Hyperventilation: Following a seizure, clients are more likely to experience transient apnea or hypoventilation due to postictal neurological depression rather than hyperventilation. Hyperventilation is not a typical immediate post-seizure risk.
B. Tinnitus: Tinnitus is not commonly associated with the immediate postictal period. While some clients may experience sensory disturbances as part of a seizure aura, it is not an acute risk following a seizure.
C. Biting their tongue: Tongue biting typically occurs during the seizure itself, particularly during tonic-clonic activity, rather than immediately after the seizure has ended. Postictally, the risk of tongue injury is minimal.
D. Pulmonary aspiration: During the postictal period, the client may have impaired consciousness, reduced protective airway reflexes, and excessive salivation, placing them at high risk for aspiration. Ensuring airway protection and proper positioning is a priority immediately following a seizure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Administration of a calcium channel blocker: Calcium channel blockers are primarily used to manage hypertension, angina, or certain arrhythmias. They do not prevent sudden cardiac death in clients with severe left ventricular dysfunction and have not been shown to improve survival in this population.
B. Insertion of an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD): An ICD continuously monitors the heart rhythm and delivers an electrical shock to terminate life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias, such as ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. This intervention significantly reduces the risk of sudden cardiac death and improve long-term survival in clients with severe left ventricular dysfunction.
C. Administration of a beta-blocker: Beta-blockers improve survival in heart failure and reduce the incidence of arrhythmias, but they do not provide immediate protection against sudden cardiac death in high-risk patients as effectively as an ICD.
D. Insertion of an implantable pacemaker: A pacemaker regulates bradyarrhythmias and maintains adequate heart rate but does not terminate life-threatening ventricular tachyarrhythmias. It does not have the same protective effect against sudden cardiac death as an ICD.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. This drug is used primarily for clients who experience an acute heart attack: Tissue plasminogen activator (alteplase) is used for thrombotic or embolic strokes as well as some cases of myocardial infarction, but this explanation does not address why it was contraindicated in a hemorrhagic stroke. Using this rationale could be misleading and does not clarify the patient-specific risk.
B. Your wife was not admitted within the time frame that alteplase is usually given: While timing is critical for thrombolytic therapy, this reason is not the main concern in hemorrhagic stroke. The absolute contraindication is the presence of active bleeding, not the admission time, so this explanation would not correctly inform the family.
C. This drug dissolves clots and may cause more bleeding into your wife's brain: Alteplase works by lysing clots, which is beneficial in ischemic strokes. However, in a hemorrhagic stroke, clot dissolution would worsen bleeding and increase intracranial pressure. This explanation directly addresses the mechanism of harm and provides a clear, accurate reason for withholding the drug.
D. Your wife had gallbladder surgery just 6 months ago and this prevents the use of alteplase: Recent surgery can be a contraindication for thrombolytics, but in this scenario, the primary concern is the type of stroke. Hemorrhagic stroke itself is the absolute contraindication, making the surgery a secondary or irrelevant factor in this case.
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