In most children 4 years and older, which of the following treatment approaches is effective in preventing asthma exacerbations and improving symptoms?
Albuterol nebulizer treatments as needed
A single short-acting beta-agonist
A single inhaled corticosteroid
A single maintenance reliever approach (SMART) with an inhaled corticosteroid and long-acting beta-agonist
The Correct Answer is D
A. Albuterol nebulizer treatments as needed provide rapid relief of acute bronchospasm but do not address the underlying chronic airway inflammation. Relying solely on rescue therapy leads to poor long-term control and increases the risk of future exacerbations. Modern guidelines emphasize the necessity of anti-inflammatory maintenance therapy rather than just managing symptoms as they arise.
B. A single short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) is no longer recommended as the sole therapy for asthma due to the risk of severe exacerbations. Continuous SABA use without a corticosteroid allows sub-clinical inflammation to persist and may lead to beta-receptor down-regulation. This approach fails to prevent the airway remodeling that occurs with poorly controlled pediatric asthma.
C. A single inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) provides excellent anti-inflammatory control but does not offer the immediate symptom relief that patients often require. While it is a standard maintenance option, it does not integrate the reliever component into a single device. It remains less effective for symptom variability compared to combined approaches in many clinical studies.
D. A single maintenance reliever approach (SMART) utilizes a combination of an inhaled corticosteroid and formoterol, a fast-acting long-acting beta-agonist. This strategy allows the child to receive a dose of anti-inflammatory medication every time they use their inhaler for symptom relief. It has been shown to significantly reduce the frequency and severity of asthma exacerbations in children.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. High-sensitivity C-reactive protein does not possess a direct enzymatic role in the lipolysis or breakdown of triglycerides. Adipose tissue metabolism is primarily regulated by hormones like insulin and catecholamines rather than inflammatory markers. While elevated CRP often correlates with metabolic syndrome, it does not function as a lipase in systemic circulation.
B. Increased levels of systemic inflammation, marked by high hs-CRP, are typically associated with decreased levels of high-density lipoprotein cholesterol. Inflammation can impair the reverse cholesterol transport system, leading to lower HDL-C levels and increased cardiovascular risk. This marker does not enhance the synthesis of protective lipoproteins but rather signals vascular stress.
C. Low-density lipoprotein production in the liver is governed by HMG-CoA reductase activity and intracellular cholesterol requirements, not by CRP levels. Although dyslipidemia and inflammation often coexist, hs-CRP is an acute-phase reactant rather than a direct metabolic stimulant for hepatic lipid synthesis. It serves as a biomarker for risk rather than a biosynthetic catalyst.
D. Elevated hs-CRP is a critical biomarker of low-grade systemic inflammation and vascular wall stress, which are essential drivers of atherogenesis. It contributes to the destabilization of atherosclerotic plaques and promotes the recruitment of monocytes into the arterial intima. Its presence indicates a heightened risk for coronary events independent of traditional lipid profiles.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Thrombus leading to myocardial infarction: A thrombus is usually a terminal event resulting from the rupture of an unstable plaque, leading to acute occlusion. While it causes infarction, it is not the primary long-term mechanism that develops coronary artery disease over many years. CAD is the underlying chronic condition, whereas a thrombus represents an acute complication of the pre-existing atherosclerotic disease process.
B. Impaired coronary artery dilation due to endothelial dysfunction: Endothelial dysfunction is an early physiological change in the CAD process where the vessel loses its ability to vasodilate via nitric oxide. While this contributes to the progression of the disease, it is considered a functional precursor rather than the physical disease itself. The primary structural cause of the disease mentioned in the question is the actual lesion formation.
C. Vasospasm causing transient myocardial ischemia: This describes Prinzmetal or variant angina, where the smooth muscle of the coronary artery wall contracts abnormally. While it can cause ischemia, it is not the standard mechanism driven by hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and diabetes. Those specific metabolic risk factors are classically linked to the accumulation of lipids and fibrous tissue within the arterial wall.
D. Atherosclerosis resulting in coronary artery narrowing: This is the definitive pathophysiological process where chronic inflammation and lipid accumulation form fibrofatty plaques within the intimal layer of the arteries. Hypertension and diabetes cause endothelial injury, allowing LDL cholesterol to penetrate the vessel wall. Over time, these plaques enlarge and obstruct blood flow, directly causing the clinical manifestations of coronary artery disease.
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