Latex allergy is suspected in a child with spina bifida. What intervention should be included in the child's plan of care?
Teaching the family about long-term management of asthma
Avoiding using any latex product
Administering medication for long-term desensitization
Using only nonallergenic latex products
The Correct Answer is B
A. Teaching the family about long-term management of asthma is incorrect because asthma management is not directly related to latex allergy, although children with latex allergy may have an increased risk of atopy. The focus should be on latex avoidance.
B. Avoiding using any latex product is correct. Children with spina bifida are at high risk for latex allergy due to frequent surgical procedures and exposure to latex-containing medical products. Complete avoidance of latex in medical equipment, gloves, toys, and household items is the most important preventive intervention to reduce the risk of anaphylaxis or allergic reactions.
C. Administering medication for long-term desensitization is incorrect because there is currently no safe or standard desensitization therapy for latex allergy. Management focuses on prevention and avoidance.
D. Using only nonallergenic latex products is partially misleading. There is no guarantee that “nonallergenic” latex products are completely safe; therefore, latex-free alternatives should be used instead of relying on “nonallergenic” labels.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Headache is correct because severe pre-eclampsia is associated with hypertension, cerebral edema, and vascular changes, which often manifest as persistent, severe headaches. This is a classic symptom and one of the warning signs of possible progression to eclampsia, which may include seizures.
B. Tachycardia is incorrect because patients with pre-eclampsia often have normal or slightly elevated heart rates, but tachycardia is not a hallmark sign. Bradycardia can sometimes occur if severe hypertension triggers reflex responses, but it is not expected as a defining feature.
C. Diplopia is incorrect because visual disturbances in pre-eclampsia are usually blurred vision, scotomata (spots in vision), or transient visual changes, rather than double vision. While visual symptoms are common, diplopia specifically is less typical.
D. Polyuria is incorrect because pre-eclampsia often causes oliguria, not polyuria, due to renal vasoconstriction and reduced glomerular filtration. Polyuria would be more indicative of conditions like gestational diabetes or diabetes insipidus, not pre-eclampsia
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Rhinorrhea, congestion, mild sore throat, and hoarseness is incorrect because these are typical symptoms of a common upper respiratory infection, such as viral pharyngitis or the common cold. Epiglottitis presents much more acutely and severely.
B. Sudden onset of cough, wheezing, rapid breathing, and difficulty swallowing is incorrect because wheezing is more characteristic of lower airway obstruction, such as asthma or bronchiolitis, rather than epiglottitis, which affects the supraglottic area.
C. Difficulty swallowing, drooling, hoarseness, and sitting in a tripod position is correct because epiglottitis is a rapidly progressing, life-threatening inflammation of the epiglottis. Key clinical signs include drooling due to difficulty swallowing, dysphagia, hoarseness or muffled voice, tripod posture to maximize airway patency, high fever, and a toxic appearance.
D. Hoarseness, stridor, and a barking cough is incorrect because these findings are more consistent with croup (laryngotracheobronchitis). Croup usually develops gradually and presents with a barking cough, low-grade fever, and inspiratory stridor, unlike the acute and severe presentation of epiglottitis.
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