Margo who started a low-potency antipsychotic for 2 weeks has shown minimal response. The most probable explanation is:
It is too early to see a full therapeutic response
The client probably has refractory illness
The client is definitely not taking the medication
The client needs a stronger medication
The Correct Answer is A
Antipsychotic medications, including low-potency agents, require adequate time to demonstrate full therapeutic effects on psychotic symptoms. Antipsychotics work primarily by modulating dopamine pathways, but clinical improvement, especially in hallucinations, delusions, and thought disturbances, may take several weeks. Early treatment response is often gradual, with some symptoms improving before others. Evaluation of effectiveness should consider duration of therapy, adherence, and expected pharmacologic onset.
Rationale:
A. It is too early to see a full therapeutic response because antipsychotic medications typically require 2–6 weeks or longer to show significant improvement in psychotic symptoms. Early partial response may be subtle, especially in negative symptoms or cognitive changes. At only 2 weeks, continued therapeutic effect is still expected as dopamine receptor adaptation continues over time.
B. Refractory illness refers to treatment-resistant psychosis, which is diagnosed only after adequate trials of multiple antipsychotics at therapeutic doses and durations. A 2-week trial is insufficient to determine treatment failure. Labeling the illness as refractory at this stage would be premature and clinically inaccurate.
C. Nonadherence cannot be assumed without evidence such as missed doses, inconsistent serum levels, or patient report. While noncompliance is a common issue in psychiatric treatment, the question provides no indication of medication refusal or poor adherence. Clinical evaluation should first consider expected drug response timelines.
D. Increasing to a stronger medication is not indicated at this stage because therapeutic response has not yet had adequate time to develop. Premature medication escalation may increase side effects without improving outcomes. Standard practice is to allow sufficient trial duration before changing antipsychotic potency or class.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Methadone is a long-acting opioid agonist used in medication-assisted treatment for opioid use disorder. While effective in reducing cravings and withdrawal symptoms, it carries important cardiac risks due to its effect on cardiac ion channels. One of the most clinically significant adverse effects is QT interval prolongation, which can lead to life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias. Continuous cardiac monitoring and risk assessment are essential during long-term therapy.
Rationale:
A. AV block is not a primary or characteristic adverse effect of methadone therapy. Although severe cardiac conduction abnormalities may occur in extreme toxicity, methadone is specifically associated with ventricular repolarization abnormalities rather than atrioventricular nodal block. Therefore, AV block is not the key monitoring concern.
B. Prolonged QT interval is the most important cardiac adverse effect associated with Methadone. It occurs due to blockade of cardiac potassium channels, leading to delayed ventricular repolarization. This increases the risk of torsades de pointes, a potentially fatal ventricular arrhythmia. Monitoring ECG changes is essential during long-term therapy.
C. Prolonged PR interval reflects delayed atrioventricular conduction, which is not the typical effect seen with methadone use. Methadone primarily affects ventricular repolarization rather than atrioventricular conduction pathways. Therefore, PR interval prolongation is not a key expected finding.
D. An elevated QRS complex suggests intraventricular conduction delay or sodium channel blockade, which is not the primary electrophysiologic effect of methadone. While severe overdose may cause generalized cardiac toxicity, the hallmark and most clinically relevant change is QT prolongation rather than QRS widening.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are commonly used in the management of major depressive disorder by increasing levels of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain. When selecting an SNRI, patient-specific factors such as liver function and substance use history must be considered. Certain medications in this class carry a higher risk of hepatotoxicity, which becomes especially concerning in individuals with recent or ongoing alcohol abuse. Careful screening helps prevent drug-induced liver injury.
Rationale:
A. Venlafaxine is an SNRI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders. While it requires monitoring for blood pressure elevation and withdrawal symptoms, it is not specifically contraindicated in patients with a history of alcohol abuse. It does not carry the same degree of hepatotoxic risk as some other SNRIs.
B. Desvenlafaxine is a metabolite of venlafaxine and shares a similar mechanism of action. It is generally well tolerated and does not have a strong association with liver toxicity. Although caution is always advised with substance use history, it is not specifically contraindicated in alcohol abuse.
C. Escitalopram is actually a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), not an SNRI. While it is commonly used for depression and anxiety, it does not significantly impact norepinephrine levels. It also does not carry a major hepatotoxic risk, but it is not relevant to the SNRI category in this question.
D. Duloxetine is associated with an increased risk of hepatotoxicity, particularly in patients with chronic alcohol use or preexisting liver disease. It is extensively metabolized by the liver, and alcohol-related liver stress can amplify the risk of injury. Because of this, duloxetine is contraindicated in patients with a history of substantial alcohol use.
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