MN, a 29-year-old asthmatic, has been diagnosed with migraines for almost two years. She is missing up to 4-5 days of work each month. Her headache diary confirms she averages five migraines per month. She currently uses a triptan with good effect to abort her migraines. She is on a controller medication for her asthma and uses albuterol as a rescue inhaler at least once a month. In addition to continuing her headache diary, which of the following would benefit MN?
Refer her to an infusion clinic for ergotamine based infusions
Amitriptyline (Elavil)
Propranolol (Inderal)
Phenytoin (Dilantin)
The Correct Answer is B
Migraine prophylaxis is indicated in patients who experience frequent attacks, significant functional impairment, or poor quality of life despite effective abortive therapy. Preventive medications aim to reduce the frequency, severity, and duration of migraine episodes. In patients with comorbid conditions such as asthma, medication selection must avoid agents that may worsen respiratory function. Individualized therapy is essential to balance efficacy with safety.
Rationale:
A. Referral for ergotamine-based infusions is not appropriate for long-term migraine prevention. Ergotamine therapies are primarily used for acute or refractory migraine attacks, not routine prophylaxis. Additionally, infusion therapy is reserved for severe, treatment-resistant cases and would not be first-line for a stable outpatient with controlled abortive response using triptans.
B. Amitriptyline (Elavil) is an appropriate choice for migraine prevention in this patient. It is effective in reducing migraine frequency by modulating serotonin and norepinephrine pathways involved in pain transmission. It is also safe in patients with asthma, unlike beta-blockers, making it a suitable prophylactic option for MN’s clinical profile.
C. Propranolol (Inderal) is commonly used for migraine prophylaxis but should be avoided in patients with asthma. As a non-selective beta-blocker, it can cause bronchoconstriction by blocking beta-2 receptors in the lungs, potentially worsening asthma symptoms. Therefore, it is contraindicated in this patient despite its effectiveness for migraines.
D. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is not indicated for migraine prophylaxis. It is primarily used for seizure disorders and has no established role in preventing migraines. Its adverse effect profile, including gingival hyperplasia and neurologic toxicity, makes it inappropriate for this clinical scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The STAR*D (Sequenced Treatment Alternatives to Relieve Depression) trial was a large, study evaluating stepwise treatment strategies for major depressive disorder when initial therapies fail or require adjustment. It helped establish evidence-based sequencing of antidepressant therapies and confirmed that selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are appropriate first-line agents due to their efficacy and tolerability profile. Treatment selection prioritizes safety, side effect burden, and patient adherence in long-term depression management.
Rationale:
A. Buspirone (Buspar) is primarily indicated for generalized anxiety disorder and is not considered a first-line antidepressant for major depressive disorder. While it can be used as an adjunct to antidepressants, it lacks strong antidepressant efficacy as monotherapy. Therefore, it is not appropriate as initial treatment for depression in the STAR*D framework.
B. Alprazolam (Xanax) is a benzodiazepine used for acute anxiety and panic symptoms, not for long-term management of depression. It does not treat the underlying pathophysiology of major depressive disorder and carries risks of dependence, tolerance, and sedation. It is not recommended as a first-line or standalone treatment for depression.
C. Amitriptyline (Elavil) is an older antidepressant effective for depression but associated with significant side effects such as anticholinergic effects, orthostatic hypotension, and cardiotoxicity in overdose. Due to its safety profile, it is not considered first-line therapy in modern treatment algorithms, including STAR*D, which favors safer SSRIs initially.
D. Escitalopram (Lexapro) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor and is considered first-line therapy for major depressive disorder in the STAR*D trial and current clinical guidelines. It has strong efficacy, a favorable side effect profile, and good tolerability compared to older antidepressants. These characteristics make it an appropriate initial pharmacologic choice for depression treatment.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Severe cystic acne is a deep, inflammatory form of acne vulgaris that can lead to scarring and significant psychosocial distress if not properly managed. Isotretinoin (Accutane) is one of the most effective treatments for refractory severe acne but requires strict monitoring due to its teratogenicity and potential systemic side effects. Initiation of this medication involves specialized prescribing programs and careful risk evaluation. Referral to a specialist ensures safe and appropriate management.
Rationale:
A. Obtaining a thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is not a prerequisite for initiating Isotretinoin (Accutane) therapy. While baseline labs such as liver function tests and lipid profiles are commonly required, thyroid function testing is not routinely indicated. Additionally, isotretinoin initiation requires structured monitoring and prescribing under appropriate protocols, typically managed by dermatology.
B. Referral to a dermatologist is the most appropriate action because Isotretinoin (Accutane) requires specialized oversight due to its high-risk profile, including severe teratogenicity and potential psychiatric and metabolic side effects. Dermatologists are trained to manage enrollment in risk management programs, monitor laboratory values, and ensure safe use, especially in reproductive-age females.
C. Stating that isotretinoin is contraindicated in all females is incorrect because it is not absolutely contraindicated; rather, it is strictly controlled in females of reproductive potential. With proper enrollment in pregnancy prevention programs and adherence to contraception requirements, it can be safely prescribed. Oral tetracyclines are not appropriate substitutes for severe cystic acne and are also contraindicated in pregnancy.
D. Severe cystic acne does require treatment escalation when first-line therapies fail, as untreated disease can result in permanent scarring and significant psychological impact. Minimizing the condition as “typical” ignores the progressive and potentially disfiguring nature of severe acne. Escalation to advanced therapies such as Isotretinoin (Accutane) is standard of care when indicated.
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