A first-line drug for abortive therapy in simple migraine is:
Butalbital and acetaminophen (Fioricet)
Butorphanol nasal spray (Stadol NS)
Naproxen (Aleve)
IM meperidine (Demerol)
The Correct Answer is C
Migraine is a neurovascular disorder characterized by episodic headache often accompanied by nausea, photophobia, and phonophobia. Abortive (acute) therapy aims to stop or reduce symptoms once a migraine begins. First-line treatment for mild to moderate or “simple” migraines typically includes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), which reduce prostaglandin-mediated inflammation and pain. Early administration improves effectiveness and may prevent progression of symptoms.
Rationale:
A. Butalbital/acetaminophen/caffeine (Fioricet) is not considered first-line therapy for migraines due to its risk of dependence, medication-overuse headache, and sedation. It is generally reserved for refractory cases and is not preferred for routine abortive migraine management. Its barbiturate component increases risk of tolerance and rebound headaches.
B. Butorphanol nasal spray (Stadol NS) is an opioid agonist-antagonist and is not recommended for first-line migraine therapy. Opioids are generally avoided in migraine management due to high risk of dependence, medication-overuse headaches, and inferior efficacy compared to NSAIDs and triptans. It is reserved only for rare, refractory cases when other treatments fail.
C. Naproxen (Aleve) is a first-line abortive treatment for simple migraines because it reduces inflammation and pain by inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes and prostaglandin synthesis. It is effective for mild to moderate migraine attacks and is widely recommended due to its safety, accessibility, and efficacy when taken early in the migraine episode.
D. Meperidine (Demerol) is not appropriate for migraine management due to its addictive potential and association with poor headache outcomes, including rebound headaches. Opioids are not recommended for routine migraine treatment and are reserved only for exceptional circumstances when other therapies are ineffective or contraindicated.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Acne vulgaris is a common inflammatory skin condition caused by follicular plugging, excess sebum production, Cutibacterium acnes proliferation, and inflammation. Treatment is based on severity, with mild acne typically managed using topical therapies that reduce bacterial load and prevent comedone formation. First-line management prioritizes safe, effective, and low-risk treatments before progressing to combination or systemic therapies. Over-the-counter options are commonly used as initial therapy for mild cases.
Rationale:
A. Topical retinoids are effective for acne because they normalize follicular keratinization and prevent comedone formation. However, they are often used as part of a broader treatment plan and may cause skin irritation, dryness, and photosensitivity. While useful, they are not always the simplest first-line monotherapy option for very mild acne compared to benzoyl peroxide alone.
B. Benzoyl peroxide and clindamycin (Benzaclin) is typically reserved for moderate acne or cases where bacterial inflammation is more pronounced. While effective, combination therapy with an antibiotic is not necessary for mild acne and may contribute to antibiotic resistance if overused. Therefore, it is not the preferred initial monotherapy for mild disease.
C. Minocycline (Minocin) is a systemic antibiotic used for moderate to severe inflammatory acne. It is not indicated for mild acne due to risks such as antibiotic resistance, gastrointestinal side effects, photosensitivity, and potential long-term adverse effects. Oral therapy is reserved for more extensive or refractory cases.
D. Over-the-counter benzoyl peroxide is the first-line treatment for mild acne because it effectively reduces Cutibacterium acnes and decreases inflammation without contributing to antibiotic resistance. It is safe, widely available, and well tolerated for initial management. This makes it the most appropriate starting therapy for mild acne presentations.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Atypical antipsychotics are commonly used to manage conditions such as schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and treatment-resistant depression. These medications work by modulating dopamine and serotonin pathways in the brain to improve psychotic and mood symptoms. However, they are associated with significant metabolic side effects that require ongoing monitoring. Patient education and regular assessment are essential to reduce long-term cardiovascular and metabolic risks.
Rationale:
A. Insomnia is not a typical primary adverse effect of Olanzapine (Zyprexa). In fact, olanzapine is more commonly associated with sedation and drowsiness due to its antihistaminic effects. While individual responses may vary, insomnia is not a key expected or clinically significant monitoring concern compared to metabolic effects.
B. Hypertension is not a hallmark adverse effect of atypical antipsychotics. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is more strongly associated with metabolic syndrome features such as weight gain, dyslipidemia, and insulin resistance rather than direct elevation of blood pressure. Olanzapine more commonly causes orthostatic hypotension due to alpha-1 blockade.
C. Weight gain is a major and well-documented adverse effect of Olanzapine (Zyprexa) due to its effects on appetite regulation, histamine receptor blockade, and metabolic changes. This can lead to obesity, insulin resistance, and increased risk of type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease. Regular monitoring of weight, BMI, and metabolic parameters is essential during therapy.
D. Hypothyroidism is not commonly associated with atypical antipsychotic use. Thyroid dysfunction is more often linked to other medications such as lithium rather than olanzapine. While endocrine changes may occur in psychiatric populations, olanzapine’s primary endocrine concern is metabolic disturbance rather than direct thyroid suppression.
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