One hour after arriving on the postoperative unit, a woman who received spinal anesthesia 5 hours ago is complaining of severe abdominal incisional pain. Her vital signs are: temperature 99° F (37.2° C), heart rate 110 beats/minute, respiratory rate 30 breaths/minute and blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. The client's skin is pale, and the surgical dressing is dry and Intact. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to Implement?
Provide pillow for splinting.
Assess the IV site for patency.
Place in a high Fowler position.
Administer an IV analgesic.
None
None
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is Choice D
Choice A rationale: Splinting with a pillow may reduce discomfort during movement or coughing by stabilizing the incision site, but it does not address acute postoperative pain with sympathetic overdrive. The elevated heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure suggest a stress response mediated by catecholamines. Without analgesia, nociceptive signals continue to activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis. While splinting is supportive, it lacks the pharmacologic efficacy needed to blunt nociceptive transmission at the spinal or supraspinal level.
Choice B rationale: Assessing IV patency is a procedural prerequisite for medication administration but not a therapeutic intervention in itself. It does not directly address the pathophysiology of acute pain or the sympathetic surge evidenced by tachycardia and hypertension. Pain activates ascending pathways via A-delta and C fibers, requiring pharmacologic blockade. IV access assessment is necessary but secondary to the urgent need for analgesia to prevent complications like hypoxia, hyperventilation, or delayed recovery.
Choice C rationale: High Fowler positioning may improve diaphragmatic excursion and reduce pulmonary complications, but it does not mitigate visceral or incisional pain. In fact, increased intra-abdominal pressure from upright posture may exacerbate pain at the surgical site. Pain perception involves central sensitization and peripheral nociceptor activation, which are unaffected by positioning. The client’s pale skin and elevated vitals indicate systemic distress requiring analgesic intervention, not postural adjustment. Thus, this choice lacks direct analgesic benefit.
Choice D rationale: IV analgesics act rapidly to inhibit nociceptive transmission at the spinal cord and brainstem levels. Opioids bind to mu receptors, reducing neurotransmitter release and hyperpolarizing neurons, thereby dampening pain signals. This intervention directly targets the physiologic cause of elevated heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. Normal heart rate is 60–100 bpm, respiratory rate 12–20 breaths/min, and BP <120/80 mmHg. Prompt analgesia prevents complications like hypoxia, delayed healing, and neuroendocrine stress
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A,B,C,D,E
Explanation
A) This is because the client is experiencing an allergic reaction to piperacillin, which can be life-threatening. The nurse should stop the infusion immediately to prevent further exposure to the drug and assess vital signs to monitor for signs of anaphylaxis, such as hypotension, tachycardia, wheezes, or stridor.
B) Assessing vital signs is a priority to determine the severity of the reaction and the client's overall condition.
C) The nurse should contact the healthcare provider to report the situation and obtain orders for treatment, such as antihistamines, corticosteroids, or epinephrine.
D) The nurse should initiate an adverse event report to document the incident and follow the facility's protocol for reporting medication errors.
E) The nurse should also document the reaction to the drug in the client's chart and notify the pharmacy to avoid future administration of piperacillin or related antibiotics.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Reviewing transcutaneous bilirubin levels is unrelated to the presence of an enlarged clitoris. Bilirubin levels are typically assessed to monitor jaundice in newborns.
B) Incorrect- Observing and palpating breast tissue for enlargement is not relevant to the condition of salt-wasting congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Breast tissue enlargement would not be associated with this hormonal disorder.
C) Incorrect- Assessing for signs of fluid retention and bilateral pedal edema is important for monitoring for other conditions, but it is not relevant to the enlarged clitoris seen in this specific scenario.
D) Correct- Salt-wasting congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a genetic disorder that results in a deficiency of certain enzymes required for cortisol and aldosterone production. This deficiency leads to an overproduction of androgens, which can cause virilization of female external genitalia. The enlarged clitoris is a result of increased androgen levels. Explaining this finding to the mother provides her with accurate information about the condition and its effects on the infant's anatomy.
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