One hour after arriving on the postoperative unit, a woman who received spinal anesthesia 5 hours ago is complaining of severe abdominal incisional pain. Her vital signs are: temperature 99° F (37.2° C), heart rate 110 beats/minute, respiratory rate 30 breaths/minute and blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. The client's skin is pale, and the surgical dressing is dry and Intact. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to Implement?
Provide pillow for splinting.
Assess the IV site for patency.
Place in a high Fowler position.
Administer an IV analgesic.
None
None
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is Choice D
Choice A rationale: Splinting with a pillow may reduce discomfort during movement or coughing by stabilizing the incision site, but it does not address acute postoperative pain with sympathetic overdrive. The elevated heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure suggest a stress response mediated by catecholamines. Without analgesia, nociceptive signals continue to activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis. While splinting is supportive, it lacks the pharmacologic efficacy needed to blunt nociceptive transmission at the spinal or supraspinal level.
Choice B rationale: Assessing IV patency is a procedural prerequisite for medication administration but not a therapeutic intervention in itself. It does not directly address the pathophysiology of acute pain or the sympathetic surge evidenced by tachycardia and hypertension. Pain activates ascending pathways via A-delta and C fibers, requiring pharmacologic blockade. IV access assessment is necessary but secondary to the urgent need for analgesia to prevent complications like hypoxia, hyperventilation, or delayed recovery.
Choice C rationale: High Fowler positioning may improve diaphragmatic excursion and reduce pulmonary complications, but it does not mitigate visceral or incisional pain. In fact, increased intra-abdominal pressure from upright posture may exacerbate pain at the surgical site. Pain perception involves central sensitization and peripheral nociceptor activation, which are unaffected by positioning. The client’s pale skin and elevated vitals indicate systemic distress requiring analgesic intervention, not postural adjustment. Thus, this choice lacks direct analgesic benefit.
Choice D rationale: IV analgesics act rapidly to inhibit nociceptive transmission at the spinal cord and brainstem levels. Opioids bind to mu receptors, reducing neurotransmitter release and hyperpolarizing neurons, thereby dampening pain signals. This intervention directly targets the physiologic cause of elevated heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. Normal heart rate is 60–100 bpm, respiratory rate 12–20 breaths/min, and BP <120/80 mmHg. Prompt analgesia prevents complications like hypoxia, delayed healing, and neuroendocrine stress
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A functional assessment is an evaluation of an individual's ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs), which includes tasks such as bathing, dressing, toileting, eating, and mobility. Falls are a common and significant issue among older adults and are a leading cause of injury and hospitalization. Therefore, it is important to assess the client's risk of falling and inquire about any recent falls to develop an appropriate plan of care to prevent falls.
Encouraging the client to lie as still as possible during the assessment is not appropriate as it may not provide an accurate evaluation of the client's ability to perform ADLs.
Additionally, it is important to assess the client's functional status in a way that is safe and comfortable for them.
Assisting the client with values clarification about end-of-life care options is not appropriate during a functional assessment as it is not directly related to the client's ability to perform ADLs.
Asking the client how often episodes of sundowning are experienced is not appropriate during a functional assessment as sundowning is a symptom of dementia and is not directly related to the client's ability to perform ADLs.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The property of the drugs that, if shared by both, indicates a need to closely monitor the client for drug toxicity is:
Highly protein bound.
When a drug is highly protein bound, it means that a significant portion of the drug molecules bind to proteins in the bloodstream. This binding can affect the availability and distribution of the drug in the body. If two drugs are highly protein bound and administered together, they may compete for binding sites on the proteins, leading to increased levels of unbound (free) drug in the bloodstream. This can result in higher drug concentrations and an increased risk of drug toxicity.
Closely monitoring the client for drug toxicity is necessary when drugs are highly protein bound because there is a potential for increased drug levels and associated adverse effects. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of drug toxicity, as well as routine laboratory tests to assess liver and kidney function, may be necessary in these cases.
The other properties listed do not necessarily indicate a need for closer monitoring for drug toxicity:
- Low bioavailability refers to the fraction of an administered dose that reaches the systemic circulation in an active form. While low bioavailability can affect the effectiveness of a drug, it does not directly imply a need for closer monitoring for drug toxicity.
- Short half-life refers to the time it takes for half of the drug concentration in the body to be eliminated. While drugs with short half-lives may require more frequent dosing, this property does not inherently suggest a need for closer monitoring for drug toxicity.
- High therapeutic index indicates a wide margin of safety for a drug, meaning that the effective dose is significantly lower than the toxic dose. A high therapeutic index implies that the drug has a wide safety margin and is less likely to cause drug toxicity.
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